REASONING ABILITY

Test of Reasoning-2 Qs. 1-8. Find the odd-man out: 1. (1) dubiety (2) obscurity (3) lucidity (4) vagueness (5) ambiguity 2. (1) octagon (2) hexagon (3) ellipse (4) square (5) rhombus 3. (1) hydrogen (2) ozone (3) nitrogen (4) oxygen (5) silicon 4. (1) London (2) New York (3) Colombo (4) Paris (5) Cairo 5. (1) banjo (2) harmonium (3) guitar (4) piano (5) accordion (2) celery (3) cabbage 6. (1) spinach (4) carrot (5) mint 7. (1) river (2) brook (3) stream (4) lake (5) water-fall 8. (1) disapprove (2) disobedience (3) disfigure (4) distinguish (5) disability Qs. 9-15. In each of the following questions, two words are given that have a definite relationship. You have to find out from the given options the pair of words with similar relationship. The order of the words may not be the same. 9. memory : amnesia. (1) dreams : sleep (2) senility : forgetfulness (3) plague : epidemic (4) dumbness : speech 10. bulldozer : devastation (1) rains : greenery (2) riots : peace (3) tractor : farming (4) volcano : lava 11. parachute : air (1) food : calories (2) ship : sea (3) lifebelt : water (4) ski : snow 12. Volga : Russia (1) Amazon : Africa (2) Thames : London (3) Nile : Egypt (4) Tiber : Iran 13. ecstacy : smile (1) sneeze : cold (2) tears : eyes (3) madness : insanity (4) frown : unpleasantness 14. apathy : enthusiasm (1) pain : relief (2) truancy : regularity (3) illness : treatment (4) drama : performance 15. trio : three (1) bio : two (2) square : four (3) octad : eight (4) poly : four Qs. 16-20 are based on the following arrangement of alphabets, write half the alphabets (A to M) with a gap of one letter between them. Write Z before A and then write the remaining alphabets in the gaps in reverse order. Example: ZAYBXC...

16. The letter ‘T’ is between: (1) E and F (2) F and G (3) G and H (4) S and U (5) None of these If we start numbering the letters arranged in this specific way from 1 to 26, what will be the values of the words given in question number 17 and 18? 17. MIST (1) 26, 17, 14, 12 (2) 26, 19, 15, 12 (3) 26, 18, 15, 12 (4) 26, 18, 14, 11 (5) 26, 18, 15, 13 18. LEND (1) 24, 10, 25, 7 (2) 23, 11, 26, 28 (3) 24, 10, 25, 8 (4) 25, 10, 24, 8 (5) 23, 11, 25, 8 19. Which letter is exactly in the middle of 15th letter from the end and 18th letter from the beginning? (1) Q (2) S (3) R (4) U (5) H 20. How many letters are there between C and U? (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4 (5) 3 21. Form a sensible word with 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 5th, 7th and 8th letters of the word GRANDSON. Which are the first and last letters of that word? (1) R and N (2) R and D (3) D and N (4) A and G (5) N and G 22. Form a word with the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 9th and 10th letters of the word ALTERNATIVE. Which letter is in the middle of the word? (1) A (2) L (3) T (4) I (5) V 23. The total age of Alka, Bharti and Chandni is 51. Chandni is 7 years older than Alka. The total age of Alka and Bharti is 11 more than Chandni. What is the age of Bharti? (1) 18 yrs (2) 20 yrs (3) 16 yrs (4) 17 yrs (5) 14 yrs Qs. 24 & 25. The names of the boys in the class are alphabetically arranged. Arjun is 6th from the top and Suresh 8th from the bottom. Mahesh is exactly in the middle of Arjun and Suresh. Raju and Mahesh have 4 boys between them while Raju and Suresh have 3. 24. How many students are there in the class? (1) 29 (2) 33 (3) 35 (4) 31 (5) 30 25. Raju’s name in the roll-call register is on the number: (1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 19 (5) 23 Qs. 26-28. Four women A, B, C, D and men W, X, Y, Z are sitting round a table facing one another. No two ladies or two men are sitting together. A is facing B. W is to the right of C.

41 n AUGUST 2002 n THE COMPETITION MASTER

REASONING ABILITY Y and Z have one person between them. W is not near B. Z is to the left of D. 26. Who is facing X? (1) B (2) Y (3) Z (4) A (5) C 27. A is between: (1) W and Z (2) Y and W (3) Y and Z (4) D and Y (5) None of these 28. If C is facing West, in which direction would W be looking if he looks at Y? (1) South-East (2) South-West (3) North-East (4) North-West (5) South 29. If during a certain year, 1st of August is Wednesday, then the 1st of October in that year would be: (1) Friday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Saturday (5) Sunday Qs. 30-35. Each of the following question has a word. The letters of the words have a code system. You have to find out the right code for the letters enclosed in box. 30. S T R A Y (1) 31. R A S I N (1) 32. S T O N E (1) 33. Y A R D S (1) 34. S H I N E (1) 35. S T A I N (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

36. If according to a code LEST is 1, 2, 3, 4 and BACK 5, 6, 7, 8 then STABLE in that code would be: (1) 3 4 6 5 1 2 (2) 3 4 5 6 1 2 (3) 3 5 4 1 6 2 (4) 3 4 6 5 2 1 (5) 3 6 4 5 1 2 37. In a certain code, CATTLE is DZUSMD. What would be the code for STRAIN? (1) TSSYJM (2) TUSZJM (3) RSSBHM (4) TSSZJM (5) TSSZHM 38. A watchman is standing in a light-house facing North. He turned 135° clockwise, then 315° anti-clockwise. After some time he again turned 45° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now? (1) South-West (2) North-East (3) East (4) West (5) North-West Qs. 39 & 40. Five friends A, B, C, D and E went to spend their evening at five different places according to their taste. E and A did not go to see a Cricket match or to Fun-Fair. D and B were not interested in Fun-Fair or Music programme. A did not go to a dance programme and E did not go to see the Painting Exhibition. D did not go to see the Cricket match. Painting does not interest A and B. 39. Who went to the dance programme?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E 40. Which of the following is a wrong statement? (1) C went to see the Fun-Fair. (2) D was interested in painting. (3) E did not go to Fun-Fair. (4) B did not go to see the Cricket match. (5) A went to the Music concert. Qs. 41-45 are based on the data given below: In a private coaching institute, the number of candidates enrolled for PMT and PET coaching is as follows. The number of successful candidates is also given. The record is for three consecutive years. Courses PMT PET

B

YEARS → Total number No. of successful candidates Total number No. of successful candidates

1999

2000

2001

320

414

496

86

102

124

270

340

400

84

116

144

41. What approximately has been the overall percentage of successful candidates during these three years? (1) 28.7% (2) 29.3% (3) 26.9% (4) 27.8% (5) 30.1% 42. Percentage of successful candidates in PMT in 2001 is how much more/less as compared to the percentage in 1999? (1) .5% more (2) 1.1% less (3) .2% more (4) 1.9% less (5) 2.3% less 43. The percentage of successful candides (PET) in 2000 is how much more or less as compared to the percentage in 1999? (approximately) (1) 3% (2) 2.5% (3) 3.5% (4) 2% (5) None of these 44. What has been the overall percentage of successful candidates in 2001? (1) 27.5% (2) 29.9% (3) 27.8% (4) 30.1% (5) 28.2% 45. What has been the overall increase or decrease in the percentage of successful candidates from 1999 to 2000? (1) increase .1% (2) decrease 1.1% (3) increase 1.1% (4) decrease .3% (5) increase .9% SYLLOGISMS In each question given below, two statements 1 and 2 are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they appear at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of them logically follows from the statements given in the question, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: 46. 1. All snakes are crocodiles. 2. All dogs are tigers and all tigers snakes. Conclusions: I. All tigers are crocodiles.

42 n AUGUST 2002 n THE COMPETITION MASTER

REASONING ABILITY II. All snakes are dogs. III. All dogs are crocodiles. IV. All crocodiles are snakes. (1) Only I and II follow. (2) Only I, II and III follow. (3) Only I and III follow. (4) Only II and IV follow. (5) All the four follow. Statements: 47. 1. All goblins are elves. 2. Some fairies are demons and the remaining are goblins. Conclusions: I. Some fairies are elves. II. Some demons are elves. III. All goblins are demons. IV. All elves are goblins. (1) Only I follows. (2) Only I and II follow. (3) Only IV follows. (4) Only II and III follow. (5) Either I or III follows. Statements: 48. 1. Half of the stars are planets and the remaining comets. 2. Half of the comets are moons and the remaining half asteroids. Conclusions: I. 25% of the stars are asteroids. II. No moon is a planet. III. Some moons are stars. IV. No asteroid is a moon. (1) Only I, II and III follow. (2) Only II and III follow. (3) Only II and IV follow. (4) Only I, III and IV follow. (5) All the four follow. Statements: 49. 1. Some mangoes are chocolates. 2. Some chocolates are biscuits. Conclusions: I. Some biscuits are mangoes. II. Some chocolates are not mangoes. III. Every mango that is not chocolate is a biscuit. IV. No mango is a biscuit. (1) Only I and III follow. (2) Either I or II follows. (3) Either I or III follows. (4) Either I or IV follows. (5) Either II or III follows. Statements: 50. 1. Some sailors are pirates. 2. All pirates are guards. Conclusions: I. Some guards are sailors. II. All guards are pirates. III. Some sailors are neither pirates nor guards. IV. All guards are sailors. (1) Only I and II follow. (2) Only I and III follow. (3) Only III follows. (4) Only IV follows. (5) None follows. In each question below, a statement is followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something

supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and then decide which of them is/are implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers is the correct one. Statement: 51. According to a report, the old age pension for people belonging to ‘below poverty line’ category would be sanctioned at the age of 65 instead of 70 years. Assumptions: I. Previously, people remained fit till the age of 70 but now they need help at the age of 65 only. II. Prior to this report the people belonging to ‘below poverty line’ category were eligible for old age pension after attaining the age of 70. III. There is no provision of pension for old people who are above poverty line. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II is implicit. (3) Only I and II are implicit. (4) Only II and III are implicit. (5) All the three are implicit. Statement: 52. In the new export boosting policy of the Commerce Minister, the ceilings on export of essentials like rice, wheat and vegetables are gone. Assumptions: I. The best quality products will be exported and the Indian customers would get only second quality products in the market. II. The prices of essential qualities would rise. III. The policy would prove to be beneficial to the farmers. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only I and II are implicit. (3) Only II and III are implicit. (4) Only I and III are implicit. (5) Either I and II or II and III are implicit. Statement: 53. The Police arrested a leader for violating Section 144 by addressing a rally. Assumptions: I. Leading a rally is not violation of Section 144, only addressing the meeting is prohibited. II. The Police was expecting some sort of disturbance. III. The crowds who participated in the rally were also arrested. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II is implicit. (3) Only III is implicit. (4) Either I or II is implicit. (5) None is implicit. Statement: 54. The government of State X has appointed special supervisors to check and inspect the quality of food-stuff supplied to primary school children under the mid-day meal scheme. Assumptions: I. State X authorities had complaints regarding

43 n AUGUST 2002 n THE COMPETITION MASTER

REASONING ABILITY the quality of stuff supplied to children. II. Mid-day meals are supplied by the government to some of the primary school children. III. The government is particular about the quality of food supplied to children. (1) Only I and II are implicit. (2) Only II and III are implicit. (3) Only III is implicit. (4) Only I and III are implicit. (5) All are implicit. Statement: 55. In spite of all the attempts to attract foreign tourists, the number of tourists coming from distant countries is constantly going down. Assumptions: I. The department of tourism has launched many schemes and packages to attract foreign tourists. II. There is no attempt to attract local tourists or improve inter-State tourism. III. The advertising wing of tourist department is not well versed in the new techniques of luring tourists. (1) Only I is implicit. (2) Only II is implicit. (3) Only III is implicit. (4) Either I or II is implicit. (5) Either II or III is implicit. In each of the questions given below, Assertion ‘A’ is followed by Reasons ‘RI’ and ‘RII’. Apply the reasons to assertion and mark your answers as follows: (1) Only RI and not RII is the reason for A. (2) Only RII and not RI is the reason for A. (3) Both RI and RII are the reasons for A. (4) Either RI or RII is the reason for A. (5) Neither RI nor RII is the reason for A. 56. A. Inspite of deteriorating conditions of law and order and pressure from the opposition, the CM of State X is not resigning. RI. The CM is well aware of the role of opposition in creating disturbance and has confidence in himself. RII. The CM has support of the Centre and his partymen have confidence in him. (1) q (2) q (3) q (4) q (5) q 57. A. The number of persons suffering from hypertension and heart diseases in urban areas is constantly increasing. RI. There is a lot of stress and pollution in all the cities. RII. City people are too busy with their jobs and rushing around to spare time for keeping themselves physically fit. (1) q (2) q (3) q (4) q (5) q 58. A. The common man is not very happy with the new budget. RI. The impact is going to result in a hike in the prices of essential commodities. RII. There are no additional facilities to enable him to earn more.

(1) q (2) q (3) q (4) q (5) q 59. A. Some low budget films do very well at the box office. RI. Audience wants a good film with powerful story and something new—no matter whether it is a low budget film or a very expensive one. RII. The audience has become sick of mega star films with dream-like sets. (1) q (2) q (3) q (4) q (5) q 60. A. Most of the students get panicky as soon as they enter the examination hall. RI. They are not well prepared. RII. The tension builts up high as they never know what the question paper might contain. (1) q (2) q (3) q (4) q (5) q Each question given below is followed by four statements numbered I, II, III and IV. Some of these give information regarding the question. You have to pick up the statements which are needed to answer the question. 61. Why is the Teachers’ Day celebrated on September 5? Statements: I. Dr Radhakrishnan, our late President, was born on September 5. II. Teachers are honoured by their students on this day. III. Good teachers get State and national awards on September 5. IV. Dr Radhakrishnan was a noted teacher and very much honoured by his students, hence the day is dedicated to him. (1) Only I and II are needed. (2) Only II, III and IV are needed. (3) Only I and III are needed. (4) Only I and IV are needed. (5) All are needed. 62. On which day of the week would we be celebrating 15th of August this year? Statements: I. It is somewhere between Tuesday and Friday. II. The last day of July falls on Wednesday. III. The first of September is Sunday. IV. 15th of August is a public holiday. (1) Only I and II are needed. (2) Either II or III is needed. (3) Only IV is needed. (4) Only I and IV are needed. (5) All are needed. 63. Who are selected Miss Hill Queen in the beauty contest? Statements: I. Edna and Damini were among the five finalists. II. Alka, Bindu and Cherry were also among the finalists. III. Alka and Edna got less marks than Cherry and Bindu. IV. Bindu got more marks than Cherry but not as many as Damini.

44 n AUGUST 2002 n THE COMPETITION MASTER

REASONING ABILITY (1) Only I, II and III are needed. (2) Only III and IV are needed. (3) Only II, III and IV are needed. (4) Only IV is needed. (5) All the four are needed. 64. To which city has Mr Gupta been transferred? Statements: I. Being a State employee, he cannot be transferred outside U.P. II. He had been posted in Lucknow for too long a period. III. Mr Gupta’s parents are extremely happy as now they can have a holy-dip in the Sangam waters whenever they want. IV. Prior to Lucknow, Mr Gupta had his posting in the city of the Taj Mahal. (1) Only I and II are needed. (2) Only I is needed. (3) Only III is needed. (4) Only II and IV are needed. (5) Only II and III are needed. 65. What is the age of retirement in State X? Statements: I. Till two years back the age of retirement was 60. II. People these days remain fit till the age of 70. III. The government decreased the age of retirement by two years last year. IV. Many employees prefer to take voluntary retirement after attaining the age of 55. (1) Only I and III are needed. (2) Only III and IV are needed. (3) Only III is needed. (4) Only I, III and IV are needed. (5) The question cannot be answered. ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

(3) (3) (5) (2) (3) (4) (4) (4) (4) (1)

11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (3)

All the remaining mean almost the same. All the other figures are formed with straight lines. All the others are gases. All the others are capitals. All the other instruments have keys. It is the only root vegetable among the leafy ones. All the others have running water. In all the others ‘dis’ is used as a prefix for negation. The absence of one results in the other state. One naturally springs up due to the other, hence cause and effect relationship. One is a means of going through over the other. They have the river and the country through which it flows relationship. They have the emotion and its natural display relationship. The words are opposites. One is related to the other number.

16-20. Z A Y B X C W D V E U F T G S H R I Q J P K O L NM 16. (2) 17. (5) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3) DRAGON 22. (3) VITAL 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (2) A

Z

26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (2)

W C

D Y

X

B

29. (2) 30-35. Match common letters with common code figures. The codes are not in the same order as the arrangement of letters in the words. 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (1) 37. (4) 1, 3, 5 ... letters are the next ones and the rest the preceding ones in alphabets. 38. (1) 39. (5) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (4) 43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (1) The best way to solve the next type of questions is by drawing Venn diagrams of all the probabilities and then reach a fool-proof conclusion. Let each item be represented by a circle irrespective of its size. Here are a few examples. 46. (3)

C S T D

C S T D

F 47. (1)

D

48. (5)

PL

S

C

D T

S

C

T

D

S C

T

D

F G

M

D

E

G E

D

G

F

F

E

Comets

A Stars

49. (4)

M

50. (2)

51. 54. 57. 60. 63.

S

B

M C

M

B

C

M

C

B

C

M

B

C

P G

(2) (5) (3) (3) (5)

45 n AUGUST 2002 n THE COMPETITION MASTER

S

P G

52. 55. 58. 61. 64.

G

(4) (1) (1) (4) (3)

S

P G

S

P G

G

53. 56. 59. 62. 65.

(2) (4) (1) (2) (1)

B

etc.