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MOCK TEST (SBI Clerk) INSTRUCTIONS • This practice test contains five sections each has 40 questions. Answer to all the questions is essential. • Every question has five options, of which only one is correct.The candidates are advised to read all options thoroughly. • There is negative marking equivalent to 1/4th of the mark allotted to the specific question for wrong answer. Time : 135 minutes

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Section - I : General Awareness Sports coaches receive which of the following awards? (a) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (b) Dronacharya Award (c) Arjuna Award (d) Magyasya Award (e) None of these Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates? (a) Microsoft Secrets (b) The Road Ahead (c) The Elephant Paradigm (d) How Nations Compete (e) None of these The expansion for the BIS, in the context of the banking industry is (a) Bank for International Settlements (b) Bank for Industrial Settlements (c) Bank for Industrial Sectors (d) Bank for International Services (e) None of these In 1955, Imperial Bank of India, a leading commercial bank of that time, was nationalised and renamed as (a) Central Bank of India (b) Bank of India (c) Indian Bank (d) State Bank of India (e) None of these Where is the headquarters of the UNO ? (a) Geneva (b) The Hague (c) New York (d) Paris (e) None of these

Max. Marks : 200

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Vyas Samman is awarded annually by (a) Azim Premji Foundation (b) Times Group (c) KK Birla Foundation (d) Ministry of Culture (e) None of these ‘The Last War’ was written by (a) Sandipan Deb (b) Madhumita Mukherjee (c) Vinod Mehta (d) Harsh Mander (e) None of these Who was the first Indian woman who won the gold medal in Asian games? (a) PT Usha (b) Sunita Rani (c) Shiny Abraham (d) Kamaljeet Sandhu (e) None of these When is the World Population Day observed? (a) July 8 (b) July 10 (c) July 11 (d) July 19 (e) None of these Which of the following term is associated with the game of Cricket? (a) Bouncer (b) Love (c) Goal (d) Mid Court (e) Collision What is the full form of ‘FINO’, a term we see frequently in financial newspapers? (a) Financial Investment Network and Operations (b) Farmers’ Investment in National Organisation (c) Farmers’ Inclusion News and Operations (d) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations (e) None of these

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Which of the following terms is NOT a financial term? (a) Investment (b) El Nino effect (c) Core banking Solution(d) RTGS (e) All are financial terms Which of the following is NOT a public sector bank? (a) Corporation Bank (b) United Bank of India (c) Vijaya Bank (d) Bank of Maharashtra (e) Axis Bank Who is the author of book Durbar? (a) Amitav Ghosh (b) Tavleen Singh (c) Amit Chaudhuri (d) Arundhati Roy (e) None of these Which of the following rates is/are NOT decided by RBI? (a) Bank Rate (b) Repo rate (c) Prime Lending Rate (d) Cash Reserve Ratio (e) None of these During which plan was the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) established to facilitate the rural credit and agricultural development? (a) Third Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) Sixth Five Year Plan (d) Eighth Five Year Plan (e) None of these Which of the following names is not associated with the insurance business in India? (a) Bajaj Allianz (b) GIC (c) LIC (d) GE Money (e) None of these Which of the following is not a tax/duty levied by the Government of India? (a) Service Tax (b) Education Cess (c) Customs Duty (d) Toll Tax (e) None of these Which of the following schemes was launched to promote basic education in India and attract children in the school going age to attend the classes? (a) Operation Flood (b) Pulse Polio Abhiyan (c) Mid Day Meal Scheme (d) Operation Black Board (e) None of these Who is the first woman to win Nobel prize? (a) Marie Curie (b) Pearls Buck (c) Bertha Von Suffner (d) Mother Teresa (e) None of these Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of (a) Music (b) Social Service (c) Literature (d) Classical Dance (e) None of these INS Airavat is India’s (a) Naval Ship (b) Amphibious Ship (c) Submarine (d) Army Command Centre (e) None of these

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Sebi recently allowed the valid address proof as (a) Voter ID (b) Passport (c) Aadhar Card (d) Driving License (e) None of these As per RBI Monetary and Credit Policy (April 1, 2014) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Repo rate stood at (a) 3.75% and 8.0% respectively (b) 3.75 and 8.25% respectively (c) 4.0% and 8.0% respectively (d) 4.0% and 8.25% respectively (e) None of these Ennore Port in Tamil Nadu was re-named as (a) Rajeev Gandhi Port (b) Kamrajar Port (c) MG Ram Chandran Port (d) Indira Gandhi Port (e) None of these Which of the Indian companies have been named among the world’s most admired companies by Fortune magazine? (a) Tata Steel and ONGC (b) BHEL and ONGC (c) BHEL and Tata Steel (d) RIL and ONGC (e) None of these As per WTO’s International Trade Statistics 2013, India’s share in global export is (a) 1.5% (b) 1.6% (c) 1.7% (d) 1.8% (e) None of these Which of the following reports is not prepared and published by the World Economic Forum? (a) World Development Report (b) Global Information Technology Report (c) Global Risk Report (d) The travel and tourism Competitiveness Report (e) None of these Consider the following facts about cooperative banks in India: I. Urban Cooperative banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India and governed by the Banking Regulations Act, 1949, and Banking Laws (Cooperative Societies) Act, 1965. II. Rural cooperative banks are regulated by state registrar of cooperatives. Choose the correct codes of answers (a) Only I is correct (b) Only II is correct (c) Both I and II are correct (d) Either I or II is correct (e) Neither I nor II is correct Which state in India has the highest Infant Mortality rate in India in 2013? (a) Odisha (b) Bihar (c) Assam (d) M.P. (e) None of these

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Which among the following countries has won the 2014-Uber Cup tournament? (a) China (b) Pakistan (c) Japan (d) India (e) None of these "Ahn Dai-Hee", has been named as new Prime Minister of ________? (a) North Korea (b) Nairobi (c) South Korea (d) Egypt (e) None of these Which among the following constituencies has recorded highest voter turnout in the recently concluded Lok Sabha election? (a) Nagaland (b) Bishnupur (c) Dhubri (d) Kanthi (e) None of these Madhav Mantri, who passed away recently, was India's oldest ___? (a) Hockey Player (b) Football Player (c) Cricketer (d) Tennis Player (e) None of these Which among the following movies has won the top Palme d'Or award for best film at the 67th Cannes International Film Festival? (a) Winter Sleep (b) Le Meraviglie (c) Mommy (d) Adieu au Langage (e) None of these The 23rd World Economic Forum on East Asia was recently concluded in____? (a) Thailand (b) Philippines (c) Vietnam (d) Indonesia (e) None of these Which among the following countries has won the AFC Women's Asian Football Cup 2014? (a) Vietnam (b) India (c) Japan (d) Australia (e) None of these "Cristiano Ronaldo", world's most marketable footballer belongs to which country? (a) Argentina (b) Spain (c) Portugal (d) Brazil (e) None of these Recently, which country has announced it would start an anti-terrorism partnership fund, which will be used to help train other countries to take on rising extremism? (a) USA (b) Russia (c) France (d) Canada (e) None of these The Daroji Sanctuary exclusively created for the preservation of Indian Sloth bears is located in which state? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu (e) None of these

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Section - II : General English

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 41-52) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. In the second week of August 1998, just a few days after the incidents of bombing the US embassies in Nairobi and Dar-esSalaam, a high-powered, brain-storming session was held near Washington D.C., to discuss various aspects of terrorism. The meeting was attended by ten of America’s leading experts in various fields such as germ and chemical warfare, public health, disease control and also by the doctors and the law-enforcing officers. Being asked to describe the horror of possible bio-attack, one of the experts narrated the following gloomy scenario. A culprit in a crowded business centre or in a busy shopping mall of a town empties a test tube containing some fluid, which in turn creates an unseen cloud of germ of a dreaded disease like anthrax capable of inflicting a horrible death within 5 days on any one who inhales it. At first 500, or so victims feel that they have mild influenza which may recede after a day or two. Then the symptoms return again and their lungs start filling with fluid. They rush to local hospitals for treatment, but the panic-stricken people may find that the medicare services run quickly out of drugs due to excessive demand. But no one would be able to realise that a terrorist attack has occurred. One cannot deny the possibility that the germ involved would be of contagious variety capable of causing an epidermic. The meeting concluded that such attacks, apart from causing immediate human tragedy, would have dire long-term effects on the political and social fabric of a country by way of ending people’s trust on the competence of the government. The experts also said that the bombs used in Kenya and Tanzania were of the old-fashion variety and involved quantities of high explosives, but new terrorism will prove to be more deadly and probably more elusive than hijacking an aeroplane or a gelignite of previous decades. According to Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto - to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political terrorists want a lot of people watching but not a lot of people dead. “Old terrorism sought to change the world while the new sort is often practised by those who believe that the world has gone beyond redemption”, he added. Hoffman says, “New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular. Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or diehard opponent of a government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain on the victim.”

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In the context of the passage, the culprit’s act of emptying a test tube containing some fluid can be classified as (a) a terrorist attack (b) an epidemic of a dreaded disease (c) a natural calamity (d) panic created by an imaginary event (e) None of these In what way would the new terrorism be different from that of the earlier years ? A. More dangerous and less baffling B. More hazardous for victims C. Less complicated for terrorists (a) A and C only (b) B and C only (c) A and B only (d) All the three (e) None of these What was the immediate provocation for the meeting held in August 1998 ? (a) the insistence of America’s leading (b) the horrors of possible bio-attacks (c) a culprit’s heinous act of spreading germs (d) people’s lack of trust in the government (e) None of these What could be the probable consequences of bio-attacks, as mentioned in the passage ? A. several deaths B. political turmoil C. social unrest (a) A only (b) B only (c) C only (d) A and B only (e) All the three The author’s purpose of writing the above passage seems to explain (a) the methods of containing terrorism (b) the socio-political turmoil in African countries (c) the deadly strategies adopted by modern terrorists (d) reasons for killing innocent people (e) the salient features of terrorism of yester years According to the author of the passage, the root cause of terrorism is A. religious fanatism B. socio-political changes in countries C. the enormous population growth (a) A only (b) B only (c) C only (d) A and B only (e) All the three The phrase “such attacks”, as mentioned in the last sentence of the second paragraph, refers to (a) the onslaught of an epidemic as a natural calamity (b) bio-attack on political people in the government (c) attack aimed at damaging the reputation of the government (d) bio-attack monoeuvred by unscrupulous elements (e) None of these

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The sole objective of the old terrorism, according to Hoffman, was to (a) plant bombs to kill innocent people (b) remove colonial power or capitalist system (c) make people realise the incompetence of the government (d) give a setback to socio-political order (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 49-50) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 49. gloomy (a) discouraging (b) disgusting (c) bright (d) tragic (e) versatile 50. cacophonous (a) loud (b) melodious (c) sonorous (d) harsh (e) distant DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-52) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 51. perpetrators (a) opponents (b) followers (c) sympathisers (d) leaders (e) monoeuvrers 52. elusive (a) harmful (b) fatal (c) destructive (d) baffling (e) obstructing DIRECTIONS (Qs. 53-57) : Below each sentence has given four possible substitutions for the bold part. If one of them (a), (b), (c) or (d) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), (c) or (d). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (e) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No’ improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (e). Errors may be in grammar, appropriate word usage or idioms. There may be a necessary word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. 53. It was my business to cross the bridge to explore the bridgehead and to find out the extent to which the enemy had advanced. (a) how much (b) the extent where (c) the point where (d) limit at which (e) No improvement 54. The world is becoming increasingly polarised between the rich and the poor. (a) among rich (b) around the rich (c) in between the rich (d) amid rich persons (e) No improvement

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I laid all the facts before him so that he could make his own Judgement. (a) laid all the facts in front of him (b) lay all the facts before him (c) lay all the facts in front of him (d) did I lay all the facts before his (e) No improvement If only she had told me about her problem I would have helped her. (a) would help (b) could help (c) had helped (d) would not help (e) No improvement Apollo was worshipped as long as the Roman Empire continued. (a) was continued (b) ruled (c) lasted (d) did not exists (e) No improvement

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-62): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are indicated as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all he four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer. 58. His derogatory (a) / remark humiliated (b) / me, but I kept my cool (c) / and didn’t allow my work to be affected (d) / by it. All Correct (e). 59. The suspected (a) / criminals (b) / who were accused (c) / of snatching ladies necklesses (d) / were finally booked. All Correct (e). 60. The objective (a) / of the programme (b) / is to entertainment (c)/ the spectators (d) /. All Correct (e). 61. Enforcement of laws and clean and efficiency (a) / administration are fundamental (b) / functions of the government machinery (c) / known as bureaucracy (d) /. All Correct (e). 62. The quantification (a) / of intellectual property is more complicating (b) / than most pricing because today it is relatively (c) / inexpensive (d) / to make copies of most intellectual property. All Correct (e). DIRECTIONS (Qs. 63-67): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at once truly raise our productivity or merely help us spin our wheels faster? (B) More important, they’re exploring what can be done about it – how we can work smarter, live smarter and put our beloved gadgets back in their proper place, with us running them, not the other way around.

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The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and communicate so readily also disrupt our work, our thoughts and what little is left of our private lives. (D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and the economic costs of the interrupted life – in dollars, productivity and dysfunction. (E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and metnal channel switching taking on our ability to think clearly work effectively and function as healthy human beings? (F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts and information-technology researchers have begun to explore those questions in detail. 63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E 64. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E 65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F 66. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E 67. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E DIRECTIONS (Qs. 68-72) : In each of these questions, each sentence has four bold words or phrases marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose one word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. If all the four world or phrases are gramatically correct in the context of sentence, mark (e) i.e., ‘No error as your answer. 68.

Engines used (a) in space shuttles are much larger (b) and more strong (c) than the ones used (d) in jet planes. No error (e).

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Banglore is a beautiful city (a) which in (b) people have successfully blended (c) the modem with (d) the traditional. No error (e).

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The bus (a) was hired (b) by (c) the ladies for its picnic (d). No error (e).

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The ways of (a) travelling has changed (b) dramatically since (c) the late nineteenth century (d). No error (e).

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Usually (a) the climate in mountainous areas becomes much (b) windy (c) at higher (d) altitudes. No error (e).

6 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 73-80) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more 73 in governance. The Prime Minister’s announcement that his Government is 74 drafting legislation to establish the citizen’s right to information is indeed welcome . Though the talk on the right to information is not new, we may 75 the bill to be brought early this time. The previous Government had set up a high-level committee to prepare a draft bill. But nothing has been heard about the matter since, 76 the committee did quite some work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be 77 further. Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a foreign judge once said, while 78 the unwarranted secrecy in an administrative system. When those in authority know that people have the right to ask questions and the government is under the 79 to provide them with answers, 80 of authority, or of public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to happen. 73. (a) strictness (b) rudeness (c) leniency (d) economy (e) transparency 74. (a) personally (b) busy (c) not (d) reluctantly (e) absolutely 75. (a) expect (b) wait (c) try (d) frustrate (e) appeal 76. (a) even (b) as (c) because (d) until (e) though 77. (a) found (b) expected (c) delayed (d) looked (e) longed 78. (a) nurturing (b) criticising (c) demanding (d) appreciating (e) upholding 79. (a) pretention (b) affect (c) substance (d) obligation (e) property 80. (a) misuse (b) governance (c) dishonour (d) curbing (e) breach r

Section - III : Quantitative Aptitude

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 81-90): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 81.

3 4 5 of of of 1015 = ? 5 7 12 (a) 220 (b) 340 (c) 240 (d) 145 (e) None of these

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1.5 × 0.025 + (?)2 = 0.1 (a) 0.28 (c) 0.25 (d) None of these

(b) 0.27 (d) 0.235

1.52 ´ 0.0225 = ? (a) 0.3375 (c) 32.75 (e) None of these

(b) 3.275 (d) 0.0375

0.0289 ´ 12 ¸ 1.5 = ? (a) 1.36 (b) (c) 13.90 (d) (e) None of these 125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500 (a) 32 (b) (c) 23 (d) (e) None of these 45% of 750 – 25% of 480 = ? (a) 216 (b) (c) 245 (d) (e) None of these

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758.5 ¸ 753.8 = ( 75)

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(a) 4.9 (c) 3.3 (e) None of these 39798 + 3798 + 378 = ? (a) 49532 (c) 43974 (e) None of these

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9 11 (e) None of these 1080 ÷ 12 ÷ 10 = ? (a) 900 (c) 120 (e) None of these

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DIRECTIONS (Qs.91-95) : Study the following chart to answer the questions given below : Villages

% population below poverty line

A B C D E F G

45 52 38 58 46 49 51

7 Proportion of population of seven villages in 1995 A G 13% 15%

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B 16%

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D 17% In 1996, the population of villages A as well as B is increased by 10% from the year 1995. If the population of village A in 1995 was 5000 and the percentage of population below poverty line in 1996 remains same as in 1995, find approximately the population of village B below poverty line in 1996. (a) 4000 (b) 45000 (c) 2500 (d) 3500 (e) None of these

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If in 1997 the population of village D is increased by 10% and the population of village G is reduced by 5% from 1995 and the population of village G in 1995 was 9000, what is the total population of villages D and G in 1997? (a) 19770 (b) 19200 (c) 18770 (d) 19870 (e) None of these If in 1995 the total population of the seven villages together was 55,000 approximately, what will be population of village F in that year below poverty line ? (a) 3000 (b) 2500 (c) 4000 (d) 3500 (e) None of these If the population of village C below poverty line in 1995 was 1520, what was the population of village F in 1995 ? (a) 4000 (b) 6000 (c) 6500 (d) 4800 (e) None of these The population of village C is 2000 in 1995. What will be the ratio of population of village C below poverty line to that of the village E below poverty line in that year ? (a) 207 : 76 (b) 76 : 207 (c) 152 : 207 (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96-100) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it. State Year 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998

96.

A App. Qual. 4500 600 5700 485 8500 950 7200 850 9000 800

Sel. 75 60 80 75 70

B App. Qual. 6400 540 7800 720 7000 650 8800 920 9500 850

Sel. 60 84 70 86 90

App. 5200 6500 4800 7400 7500

What is the average number of candidates appeared over the years for State B ? (a) 8900

(b) 7900

(c) 7400

(d) 8100

(e) None of these 97.

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What approximately is the percentage of total number of candidates selected to the total number of candidates qualified for all the five states together during the year 1996 ? (a) 11% (b) 15% (c) 12% (d) 16% (e) None of these For which of the following years is the percentage of candidates selected over the number of candidates qualified the highest for state ‘C’ ? (a) 1997 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1994 (e) None of these

C Qual 350 525 400 560 640

99.

Sel. 55 65 48 70 82

App. 7100 6800 5600 7500 4800

D Qual 650 600 620 800 500

Sel. 75 70 85 65 48

E App. Qual. 6400 700 8200 680 7500 720 7800 810 8000 850

Sel 75 85 78 82 94

For which of the following states the average number of candidates selected over the years is the maximum ? (a) A (b) E (c) C (d) D (e) None of these 100. For which of the following states is the percentage of candidates qualified to appeared the highest during the year 1997 ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these 101. The number zero (0) is surrounded by the same 2-digit number on both (left and right) the sides; for example, 25025, 67067, etc. The largest number that always divides such a number is (a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 1001 (e) None of these

8 102. The number of 3-digit number exactly divisible by 5 is (a) 181 (b) 180 (c) 179 (d) 199 (e) None of these 103. If a certain sum of money becomes double at simple interest in 12 years, what would be the rate of interest per annum ? (a) 8 1 3

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

(b) 10

(c) 12 (d) 14 (e) None of these Three successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% amount to a single discount of (a) 36.28 % (b) 34.68% (c) 37 % (d) 32.68% (e) None of these The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last year. This year, the price of A is increased by 25% and that of B by Rs 50000. If their prices are now in the ratio 9 : 10, the price of A last year was (a) Rs 3,60,000 (b) Rs 4,50,000 (c) Rs 4,80,000 (d) Rs 5,00,000 (e) None of these During a journey of 80 km a train covers first 60km with a speed of 40 km/h and completes the remaining distance with a speed of 20 km/h. What is the average speed of the train during the whole journey? (a) 30 km/h (b) 32 km/h (c) 36 km/h (d) 40 km/h (e) None of these An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time, it has to increase its speed by 250 km/h from its usual speed. Find its usual speed. (a) 1000 km/h (b) 750 km/h (c) 850 km/h (d) 650 km/h (e) None of these A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs 3,600 in 40 annual instalments which form an AP. When 30 of the instalments are paid, he dies leaving one-third of the debt unpaid. Find the value of the first instalment. (a) 55 (b) 53 (c) 51 (d) 49 (e) None of these A tank 30 m long, 20 m wide and 12 m deep is dug in a field 500 m long and 30 m wide. By how much will the level of the field rise, if the earth dug out of the tank is evenly spread over the field? (a) 0.33 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 0.25 m (d) 0.4 m (e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 110-114) : Find the next term in the given series in each of the questions below. 110. 198, 194, 185, 169, .... (a) 136 (b) 144 (c) 9 (d) 92 (e) None of these 111. 6, 9, 7, 10, 8, 11, .... (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 9 (d) 14 (e) None of these 112. 5, 6, 8, 9, 11, .... (a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 17 (d) 20 (e) None of these 113. 35, 30, 25, 20, 15, 10, .... (a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 2 (e) None of these 114. 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, .... (a) 38 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60 (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 115-120): Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in the following questions. (You are not expected to find out the exact value). 115.

10609 ´ 7938.81 = ? (a) 9200 (b) 81973. (c) 8553.3 (d) 8682.7 (e) None of these ?

3 116. éê éë(13)2 ùû ùú = 2197 ë û

(a) –3

117.

118.

119.

120.

1 3 (d) – 4

(b)

(c) 0.5 (e) None of these 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = ? (a) 253 (b) 231 (c) 211 (d) 241 (e) None of these (98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = ? (a) 10812 (b) 18012 (c) 10910 (d) 18102 (e) None of these 8959 ¸ ? ¸ 4 ¸ 5 = 26.35 (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 17 (e) None of these 3739 + 164 × 27 = ? (a) 10540 (b) 4000 (c) 8400 (d) 8200 (e) None of these

9 r

Section - IV : Reasoning Ability

121. Ostrich is related to Antelope in the same way as Egret is related to (a) Cow (b) Buffalo (c) Camel (d) Zebra (e) None of these 122. Which one is different from the remaining three? (a) GIJK (b) DFGH (c) CEFG (d) ABCD (e) None of these 123. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters in the same sequence between them in the word as in the english alphabet ? (a) Four (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these 124. If the first three letters of the word COMPREHENSION are reversed, then the last three letters are added and then the remaining letters are reversed and added, then which letter will be exactly in the middle ? (a) H (b) N (c) R (d) S (e) None of these 125. In a queue of children, Kashish is fifth from the left and Mona is sixth from the right. When they interchange their places among themselves, Kashish becomes thirteenth from the left. Then, what will be Mona's Position from the right? (a) 4th (b) 14th (c) 8th (d) 15th (e) None of these 126. In a certain coding system, RBM STD BRO PUS means ‘the cat is beautiful’. TNH PUS DIM STD means ‘the dog is brown’. PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS means ‘the dog has the cat’. What is the code for ‘has’ ? (a) CUS (b) BRO (c) DIM (d) STD (e) None of these 127. If NAXALITE is written in a certain code as LYVYJGRC’ how will INTEGRATE be written in the same code ? (a) LGRECYPRC (b) GLRCEPYRC (c) PYWMNOPQR (d) BLACKHOLE (e) None of these 128. If ‘light’ is called ‘morning’, ‘morning’ is called ‘dark’, ‘dark’ is called ‘night’, ‘night’ is called ‘sunshine’ and ‘sunshine’ is called ‘dusk’, when do we sleep ? (a) Dusk (b) Dark (c) Night (d) Sunshine (e) None of these 129. X told Y, “Though I am the son of your father, you are not my brother”. How is Y related to X ? (a) Sister (b) Son (c) Daughter (d) Father (e) None of these

130. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the north. When the post offfice was 100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at shantivilla. He then moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many metres away he was now from the post office? (a) 0 (b) 150 (c) 90 (d) 100 (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 131-135) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly know facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 131. Statement : A. Some boys are rains. B. All rains are clouds. C. Some clouds are cars. Conclusions : I. Some clouds are boys. II. Some cars are boys. III. Some cars are rains. IV. Some rains are boys. (a) Only II follows (b) Only IV follows (c) Only I follows (d) Both I and IV follow (e) None of these 132. Statement : A. All bricks are flowers. B. Some houses are flowers. C. All pens are houses. Conclusions : I. Some houses are bricks. II. Some pens are flowers. III. Some flowers are bricks. IV. No pen is flower. (a) Only either II or IV and III follow (b) Only either II or IV and I follow (c) Only either I or II and IV follow (d) Either II or IV follow (e) None of these 133. Statement : A. All lions are ducks. B. No duck is a horse. C. All horses are fruits. Conclusions : I. No lion is a horse. II. Some fruits are horses. III. Some ducks are lions. IV. Some lions are horses. (a) All follows (b) Only either I or II and both III and IV follow (c) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow (d) Neither I nor II follow (e) None of these

10 134. Statements :

Conclusions :

(a) Only I follows (c) Only III follows (e) None of these 135. Statements :

A. B. C. I. II. III. (b) (d)

Some stones are bricks. All plants are stones. No flower is a plant. No flower is a stone. Some bricks are plants. No bricks are plants. Only II follows Either II or III follows

A. All tigers are jungles. B. No jungle is a bird. C. Some birds are rains. Conclusions : I. No rain is a jungle. II. Some rains are jungles. III. No bird is a tiger. (a) Only either II or III follows (b) Only I and II follow (c) Only either I or II and III follow (d) Neither II nor III follow (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 136-140) : Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow. (I) M, N, P, Q, S and T are six members of a group in which there are three female members. Females work in three departments – Accounts, Administration and Personnel and sit in three different floors – 1st, 2nd and 3rd. Persons working in the same department are not on the same floor. On each floor, two persons work. (II) No two ladies, work in the same department or on the same floor. N and S work in the same department but not in personnel. Q works in Administration. S and M are on the 1st and 3rd floors respectively and work in the same department. Q, a lady, does not work on 2nd floor. P, a man, works on the Ist floor. 136. Which of the following groups of persons is females ? (a) SQT (b) QMT (c) QPT (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these 137. T works in which department ? (a) Accounts (b) Administration (c) Personnel (d) Accounts or Personnel (e) None of these 138. Which of the following pairs of persons work on IInd floor? (a) PT (b) SM (c) QN (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these 139. If T is transferred to Accounts and S is transferred to Administration, who is to be transferred to Personnel to maintain the original distribution of females on each floor ? (a) P (b) N (c) Q (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

140. Which of the following pairs of persons works in Administration ? (a) QP (b) QN (c) SP (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 141-145) : In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of numbers codes lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). The group of letters is to be coded with the numbers codes and the condition given below. The ‘serial number of the number combination’. Which correctly represents the letter group, is your answer. Letters Numbers Codes

D 3

J 9

K 7

Q 6

H 4

V 8

N 2

E 1

B 5

A 0

Conditions : If the first or the last letter or both in the letter group is /are a vowel then the same is/are to be coded by symbol #. 141. EHNDJV (a) #42389 (b) 142398 (c) #42398 (d) 14239# (e) None of these 142. KQDJNH (a) 763942 (b) 736924 (c) #36924 (d) #63924 (e) None of these 143. AJNVQE (a) #9286# (b) 09286# (c) #92861 (d) 092861 (e) None of these 144. QHJVND (a) 648923 (b) 649823 (c) #49823 (d) 64892# (e) None of these 145. JKEDHA (a) 97#34# (b) 971340 (c) 971430 (d) 97134# (e) None of these DIRECTIONS : (Qs. 146-150): In the questions given below, certain symbols are used with the following meaning: A @ B means A is greater than B. A + B means A is either greater than or equal to B. A † B means A is smaller than B A Ä B meansA is either smaller than or equal to B. A $ B means A is equal to B Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is /are definitely true. Give answer (a) if only conclusion I is true. (b) if only conclusion II is true. (c) if either I or II is true. (d) if neither I nor II are true. (e) if both I and II are true.

11 146. Statements : T $ G, K @ P, M † T, P + M Conclusions: 147. Statements : Conclusions: 148. Statements :

I. K @ M II. G $ P R + N, S Ä Q, P @ N, Q $ P I. S $ N II. P Å N G $ K, F @ J, K + Q, Q Ä F

Conclusions: I. K $ F

II. F †K

Answer figures

(a) (b) 157. Problem figures

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(c)

(d)

(e)

149. Statements : W @ S, K Ä Z, U + W, S $ K Conclusions: I. U @ K II. Z @ S 150. Statements : G $ E, D † K, E † S, K Ä G Conclusions: I. S @ D II. D † E DIRECTIONS (Qs. 151-155) : These questions are based on the following letter/ number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions. 3 BE 4 # W9 A2 J K * 1 5 U Q R7 F @ HI 6 $ V 151. How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel but not immediately followed by a consonant ? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three 152. 6I : E4 :: A9 : ? (a) 7F (b) F@ (c) R7 (d) 7R (e) None of these 153. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three 154. Which element is sixth to the right of eleventh from the right end ? (a) # (b) @ (c) 1 (d) H (e) None of these 155. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (a) W 9 # (b) B E 3 (c) 2 J A (d) H I @ (e) R Q 7 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 156 - 160): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answers figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued? 156. Problem figures

.

Answer figures

(a) (b) 158. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a) (b) 159. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a) (b) 160. Problem figures

Answer figures

(a)

(b)

12 r

Section - V : Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge

161. Marketing in banks is defined as (a) Negotiable Instruments Act (b) Banking Regulation Act (c) Reserve Bank of India Act (d) Companies Act (e) None of these 162. Value-added services means (a) giving full value for money (b) better value for better price (c) costlier service (d) additional service (e) All of these 163. Marketing is not required for which one of the following products? (a) Corporate Loans (b) Export Business (c) Import Business (d) Credit Card Business (e) None of these 164. The traditional marketing style involves (a) Telemarketing (b) Digital Marketing (c) Indirect Marketing (d) Direct Marketing (e) All of these 165. Motivation means (a) inspiring employees to perform better (b) better communication skills (c) sales coaching (d) market research (e) None of these 166. In marketing terms, attitude can best be defined as a (a) rude behaviour of salesperson (b) rude behaviour of consumer (c) mental state of consumer (d) ego of the marketing executive (e) None of these 167. Which among the following is included in fringe benefits available to an employee ? (a) old age survivours benefits (b) pensions (c) gratuities (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) None of these 168. According to product life cycle theory, the profit is maximum in (a) developed Stage (b) early stage (c) matured Stage (d) declined Stage (e) None of these

169. In banks, loans & advances are considered as (a) assets (b) liabilities (c) resources (d) cause of expenditure (e) None of these 170. What is meant by the term psychological pricing? (a) The process of raising the customer awareness of the supposed values/qualities of your product, so building its brand image. (b) The cutting out of wholesalers from the distribution chain. (c) Setting prices that reinforce the concept of value. e.g. £99 and not £100. (d) The forces of supply and demand and how they determine price. (e) None of these 171. Market share can be measured by (a) counting the number of customers there are in a market, and for a particular firm within it. (b) comparing the sales value for a company with the total unit sales for the whole market. (c) comparing the sales value for a company with the total sales value for the whole market. (d) comparing the number of outlets a firm has with the total number of outlets within the market. (e) None of these 172. A firm is productively efficient when (a) it is producing its product or service at the lowest unit cost that it can. (b) it is selling at the lowest price possible. (c) it has the highest labour productivity that it can. (d) it is making what its customers want. (e) None of these 173. Cell production is the modern production method where (a) buildings are made from prefabricated units, or cells. (b) production is done in small rooms. (c) the output from the Prison Service factories. (d) production on assembly lines is managed and run by groups of workers who are responsible for the quality of their work. (e) None of these 174. Which of the following will NOT result following the introduction of a more decentralised system of management? (a) Increased motivation amongst those empowered to make decisions. (b) Greater consistency in the decisions made. (c) The development of skills amongst the junior members of the management team. (d) An increase in the speed at which essential decisions are made. (e) None of these

13 175. Which of the following is the best definition of a centralised management system? (a) A system that encourages empowerment of workers. (b) A management structure that concentrates on developing the skills of junior personnel. (c) A system that involves authority and responsibility for decision-making being in the hands of senior managers. (d) A system that encourages faster decision-making. (e) None of these 176. Which of the following is NOT normally a sign of poor morale amongst a workforce? (a) High levels of absenteeism. (b) High levels of turnover. (c) Increased levels of personal productivity. (d) A poor external image and difficulties attracting good recruits. (e) None of these 177. The dominant firm in a market is operating at near full capacity, and the other firms can do little to significantly increase their supply to the market. This will lead to all of the following, except (a) rising prices as demand begins to outstrip supply. (b) high and rising profit margins. (c) increased levels of marketing, especially advertising. (d) new firms considering entering the market. (e) None of these 178. Find the incorrect statement (a) Marketing has no relevance in public sector banks (b) Marketing has no relevance in private sector banks (c) Marketing has no relevance in foreign banks (d) All of these (e) None of these 179. Public relations is required for (a) improving customer service in the company (b) improving marketing functions in the company (c) better atmosphere in the company (d) All of these (e) None of these 180. Vegetable market in India is nearly an example of (a) perfect Competition(b) monopoly (c) oligopoly (d) imperfect competition (e) high monopsony 181. Which of the following is a web browser ? (a) Paint (b) Power Point (c) Firefox (d) Word (e) All of these 182. Editing a document consists of reading through the document you’ve created, then (a) Correcting your errors (b) Printing it (c) Saving it (d) Deleting it (e) None of these

183. Codes consisting of bars or lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer - readable are known as (a) an ASCII code (b) a magnetic tape (c) an OCR scanner (d) a bar code (e) None of these 184. In addition to keying data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a (an) (a) input form (b) table (c) field (d) data dictionary (e) None of these 185. If you type a word that is not in word’s dictionary, a wavy _________ underline appears below the word. (a) red (b) green (c) blue (d) black (e) None of these 186. Use the _________, to choose a slide layout. (a) Quick Styles gallery (b) Format gallery (c) Layout gallery (d) Layout collection (e) None of these 187. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage? (a) GB (b) KB (c) MB (d) TB (e) None of these 188. Which of the following are objects in an acess database ? (a) table, form (b) queries, reports (c) macros, modules (d) All of the above (e) None of these 189. The ________ shows all the web sites and pages that you have visited over a period of time. (a) status bar (b) task bar (c) history list (d) tool bar (e) None of these 190. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer. (a) The platform (b) The operating system (c) Application software (d) The motherboard (e) None of these 191. An example of non-numeric data is (a) Bank balance (b) Examination marks (c) Real numbers (d) Employee address (e) None of these

14 192. For seeing the output, you use (a) monitor (b) keyboard (c) mouse (d) scanner (e) None of these 193. Where are programs and data kept while the processor is using them? (a) Main memory (b) Secondary memory (c) Disk memory (d) Program memory (e) None of these 194. What does ‘C’ represent in MICR? (a) Code (b) Column (c) Computer (d) Character (e) None of these 195 A CD-RW disk (a) has a faster access than an internal disk (b) is a form of optial disk, so it can only be written once (c) holds less data than a floppy disk (d) can be erased and rewritten (e) None of these 196. To take information from one source and bring it to your computer is referred to as (a) upload (b) download (c) transfer (d) de-link (e) None of these

197. Which of the following could do to remove a paragraph from a report you had written? (a) Delte and edit (b) Highlight and delete (c) Cut and paste (d) Undo typing (e) None of these 198. Which equipment is used to capture information and commands? (a) Output device (b) Input device (c) Storage device (d) Telecommunication device (e) None of these 199. A file that contains definitions of the paragraph and character styles for your document and all things you customised like toolbars and menus is called a (a) guide (b) pattern (c) base document (d) template (e) None of these 200. A computer cannot ‘boot’ if it does not have the (a) Compiler (b) Loader (c) Operating System (d) Assembler (e) None of these

15 (b)

21

(c)

41

(a)

61

(a)

ANS WER KEY (d) 101 (d) 81

2

(b)

22

(b)

42

(b)

62

(b)

82

3

(a)

23

(c)

43

(e)

63

(a)

83

(a)

103

(a)

123

(c)

143

(a)

163

(e)

183

(d)

4

(d)

24

(c)

44

(e)

64

(e)

84

(a)

104

(d)

124

(d)

144

(b)

164

(d)

184

(a)

5

(c)

25

(b)

45

(c)

65

(e)

85

(e)

105

(a)

125

(b)

145

(d)

165

(a)

185

(a)

6

1

(c)

102

(b)

121

(b)

141

(c)

161

(e)

181

(c)

122

(d)

142

(e)

162

(d)

182

(a)

(c)

26

(a)

46

(a)

66

(b)

86

(b)

106

(b)

126

(a)

146

(c)

186

(b)

(a)

27

(c)

47

(d)

67

(c)

87

(d)

107

(b)

127

(b)

147

(a) (b)

166

7

167

(e)

187

(d)

8

(d)

28

(a)

48

(d)

68

(c)

88

(c)

108

(c)

128

(d)

148

(c)

168

(a)

188

(d)

9

(e) (e)

169

(a)

189

(c)

170

(c)

190

(b)

(c)

29

(c)

49

(c)

69

(b)

89

(b)

109

(b)

129

(a)

149

10

(a)

30

(d)

50

(b)

70

(d)

90

(e)

110

(b)

130

(c)

150

11

(d)

31

51

(e)

71

(b)

91

(d)

111

(c)

131

(d)

151

(d)

171

(c)

191

(e)

52

(d)

72

(b)

92

(a)

112

(b)

132

(a)

152

(a)

172

(a)

192

(a)

53

(c)

73

(e)

93

(d)

113

(c)

133

(c)

153

(c)

173

(d)

193

(a)

12

(b)

32

(a) (c)

13

(e)

33

(c)

14

(c)

54

(e)

74

(b)

94

(c)

114

(b)

134

(d)

154

(d)

174

(b)

194

(d)

(a) (b)

55

(e)

75

(a)

95

(b)

115

(a)

135

(c)

155

(e)

175

(c)

195

(d)

56

(e)

76

(e)

96

(b)

116

(c)

136

(a)

156

(d)

176

(c)

196

(b)

(b)

34

15

(c)

35

16

(c)

36

17

(d)

37

(c)

57

(c)

77

(c)

97

(a)

117

(b)

137

(c)

157

(c)

177

(c)

197

(b)

18

(d)

38

(c)

58

(e)

78

(b)

98

(d)

118

(a)

138

(e)

158

(b)

178

(d)

198

(b)

19

(c)

39

59

(d)

79

(d)

99

(b)

119

(d)

139

(c)

159

(a)

179

(e)

199

(d)

20

(a)

40

(a) (b)

60

(c)

80

(a)

100

(a)

120

(a)

140

(d)

160

(c)

180

(a)

200

(c)

HINTS & SOLUTION 1.

6.

7.

8.

9.

(b) Dronacharya award is an award presented by the government of India for excellence in sports coaching. The award comprises bronze statue of Dronacharya, a scroll of honour and a cash component of Rs.500,000. The award was instituted in 1985. The last recipient of the award is Raj Singh for wrestling in the year 2014. (c) The Vyas Samman is a literary award which was first awarded in 1991. It is awarded annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation and includes a cash of ` 250,000 (as of 2005). To be eligible for the award, the literary work must be in the Hindi language and has been published in the past 10 years. (a) The Last War by Sandipan Deb is a novel about a business family that deals in many illegal activities. The novel stretches from the year 1955 to the year 2007, during which time the life of the family members takes various twists and turns. The novel bursts with drama, deceit and manoeuvre. (d) Kamaljeet Sandhu is a former woman Indian athlete who won gold medal at 1970 Asian Games in 400 m race. She was the first woman to win Gold in any Asian games. (c) World Population Day is observed on July 11 every year, which seeks to raise awareness of global population issues. The event was established by the Governing Council of the United Nations Development

10.

(a)

12.

(b)

16.

(c)

41.

(a)

42.

(b)

43.

(e)

Programme in 1989. In the sport of cricket, a bouncer (or bumper) is a type of delivery, usually bowled by a fast bowler which is pitched short so that it bounces on the pitch well short of the batsman and rears up to chest or head height. El Nino effect is a band of warm ocean water temperatures that periodically develops off the Pacific Coast of South America. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is an apex development bank in India having headquarters in Mumbai. It was established on 12 July 1982 in sixth five year plan by a special act by the parliament and its main focus was to uplift rural India by increasing the credit flow for elevation of agriculture and rural non-farm sector. Ascertain the hidden meaning of the sentence. “but no one would be able to realise that a terrorist attack has occurred ”. So, undoubtedly the culprit’s act can be classified as a terrorist attack. “New terrorism has no long-term agenda but its ruthless in its short-term intentions”. This statement from the passage supports (B). While in the light of passage, (C) also seems suitable. The immediate provocation for the meeting held in August 1998 has not been given among the options. It was the incidents of bombing the U.S. embassies in Nairobi and Dar-es-Salaam.

16 44.

(e) Bio-attack will result in several deaths which will lead to political turmoil creating social unrest. 46. (a) ‘Religious intolerance’, as cited in the last paragraph stands behind terrorism. 53. (c) The correct sentence should be read, 'It was my business to cross the bridge to explore the bridge head and to find out the point where the enemy had advanced'. Therefore, (c) is the correct answer, the reason being the enemy had already advanced to that place therefore its a particular point or destination' the other two options the extent where and how much means the exact point or location is unknown therefore these options are correct. 54. (e) This sentence is grammatically correct none of the suggested changes will improve it. So, the option (e) is the correct answer. 55. (e) This sentence is correct none of the changes suggested will improve it. So, the option (e) is the correct answer. 56. (e) This sentence is grammatically correct none of the changes suggested will improve it. So, the option (e) is the correct answer. 57. (c) The correct sentence should be read, 'Appollo was worshipped as long as the Roman empire 'lasted' therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The reason being Apollo was worshipped till the Roman empire was there therefore 'lasted' fits in best, the other two options was continued or ruled are incorrect. 58. (e) No correction required. 59. (d) It should be “neckleces” 60. (c) It should be “entertain”. 61. (a) It should be “efficient”. 62. (b) It should be “complicated” For (Qs. 63–67) : The correct order of the sentences to form a meaningful paragraph is AEFDBC. Because A and E ask questions and F is attempting to explain them. 68. (c) For the verb ‘strong’ the comparative degree usage is ‘stronger’ and not more strong. 69. (b) Since it is a city-Bangalore- ‘where’ must be used instead of ‘which’ because the referrent is a place and not a thing. 70. (d) The noun is ladies, so the pronoun used for them cannot be ‘it’ (which is used for things) but ‘their’. 71. (b) It should be ‘have changed’, the noun is plural (ways), has is used for singular nouns. 72. (b) There is a comparison being made, so comparative degree ‘higher’ has been used. Therefore instead of ‘much’ the comparative degree ‘more’ would be correct. 4 3 5 3 4 5 1015 = 145 of of of 1015 = ´ ´ ´1015 = 5 7 12 7 5 7 12

81.

(d)

82.

(c) 1.5 ´ 0.025 + (?)2 = 0.1 Þ (?) 2 = 0.1 - 1.5 ´ 0.025

Þ (?) 2 = 0.1 - 0.0375 Þ ? = .0625 = 0.25 83.

(a) 1.5 2 ´ 0.00225 = 2.25 ´ 0.15 = 0.3375

84.

(a)

85.

(e) 125% of 260 + ?% of 700 = 500 Þ ?% of 700 = 500 – 125% of 260

0.0289 ´ 12 ¸ 1.5 =

0.0289 ´12 0.17 ´12 = = 1.36 1.5 1.5

Þ ?% of 700 = 175 \

86.

?=

175 ´ 100 = 25 700

(b) 45% of 750 – 25% of 480 =

45 ´ 750 25 ´ 480 = 337.5 - 120 = 217.5 100 100

758.5 ¸ 753.8 = 75(8.5 -3.8) = 754.7

87.

(d)

88.

(c) 39798 + 3798 + 378 = 43974

89.

(b) 3 =

7 3 1 + 7 ´1 11 11 2 40 80 3 160 6 + ´ = = 14 11 11 2 11 11 1080 =9 12 ´ 10

90.

(e) 1080 ¸ 12 ¸ 10 =

91.

(d) Population of village B in 1995 = 5000 ´

16 » 6150 13

110 = 6750 100 Population below poverty line = 52% of 6750 » 3500

Population of village B in 1996 = 6150 ´

92.

(a) Population of village D in 1995 = 9,000 ×

17 = 10, 200 15

Population of village D in 1997 = 10, 200 ´

110 100

= 11,220 Population of village G in 1997 = 9,000 ´

93.

\ Total population of village D and G in 1997 = 11,220 + 8,550 = 19,770 (d) Population of village F below poverty line = 55000 ´

94.

95 = 8,550 100

13 49 ´ » 3500 100 100

(c) Population of village F in 1995 = 1520 ´

100 13 ´ = 6500 38 8

17 95.

(b) Population of village C below poverty line = 2000 ´

38 = 760 100

Population of village E below poverty line =

2000 æ 46 ö ´ 18 ´ ç = 2070 è 100 ÷ø 8

\ Required ratio = 96.

760 = 76 : 207 2070

(b) Average no. of candidates appeared for state B =

6400 + 7800 + 7000 + 8800 + 9500 = 7900 5 361 ´ 100 » 11% 3340

97.

(a) Required percentage =

98.

(d) Percentage of candidates selected for state C can be seen in the following table: 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 15.7% 12.3% 12% 12.5% 12.8% Alternatively : We have to find the year for which

99.

Sel. Qual. is the highest; i.e., is the least. Clearly,, Qual. Sel. only for the year 1994 it below 7. In other cases it is more than 7. Hence our answer is (d). (b) Average no. of candidates selected A B C D E 72 78 64 68.6 82.8

B

C

Þ SI = (2P - P ) = P Now, I = or r =

D

E

11.8% 10.4% 7.5% 10.6% 10.3% Alternatively : We have to find the highest value of

App. Qual. . , i.e., the least value of Qual. App. It is least for state A, which is less than 9. In other cases it is more than 9. So, our answer is (a). 101. (d) First start with the option (d). 1001× 25 = 25025 1001× 67 = 67067 etc. Thus 1001 is the largest number which divides the numbers of the type 25025, 67067 etc. 102. (b) A three digit number to be exactly divisible by 5 must have either 0 or 5 at its units place.

P ´ r ´ 12 P´r´t ÞP= 100 100

100 25 1 = =8 % 12 3 3

104. (d) Applying successive discounts of 10%, 12% and 15% on 100, we get 100 ´ 0.9 ´ 0.88 ´ 0.85 = 67.32 Þ Single discount = 100 – 67.32=32.68 105. (a) Let the prices of two houses A and B be Rs 4x and Rs 5x, respectively for the last year. Then, the prices of A this year = Rs (1.25 × 4x) and that of B = Rs (5x + 50,000) This year, Ratio of their prices = 9 : 10 \

100. (a) Percentage of candidates qualified in 1997 A

Such numbers will be 100, 105, 110, ..........., 995. First term = 100, last term = 995 Let the required number be n. To find the value of n, we may use the following formula of arithmetic progression, Tn = a + (n – 1) d .... (1) Where d = common difference = 5 Tn = 995 a = 100 Hence from (1) 995 = 100 + (n – 1) 5 Þ 5n = 900 n = 180 Digits to be used = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. 103. (a) Let the principal be P, then amount after 12 years = 2P

1.25 ´ 4x 9 = 5x + 50,000 10

Þ 50x - 45x = 450000 Þ 5x = 4,50,000 Þ x = 90,000 Hence, the price of A last year was 4x = Rs 3,60,000 106. (b) Average speed =

=

Total distance Total time 80 60 20 + 40 20

=

80 = 32 km/h 2.5

107. (b) Let the usual speed of the aeroplane be x km/h. Then,

1500 1 1500 - = x 2 (x + 250)

Solving, we get x = 750 km/h 108. (c) Sum of 40 instalments = S40 = 3600 = 20 (2a + 39d) or 2a + 39d = 180 ...(i)

18 Sum of 30 instalments = S30 = 2400 = 15 (2a + 29d) or 2a + 29d = 160 ...(ii) From (i) and (ii), we get a = 51 and d = 2 The value of first instalment = Rs 51 109. (b) Volume of the earth taken out = 30 × 20 × 12 = 7200 m3

89.1 8 79388.81 64 169 1538 1521 1781 1781 1781 0

Field

470 m 30 m

30 m

Hence 103 × 89.1 = 9177.3 » 9200 116. (c) Let x be there in place of question mark. x

x 3 So, é éë(13)2 ùû ù = 2197 Þ é(169)3 ù = 2197 ë û ë û

20 m 470 m

4826809x = 2197, taking log10 on both the sides x log10 (4826809) = log10 2197 Þ x × 6.68366 = 3.34183

30 m Tank

Area of the remaining portion (leaving the area of dug out portion) = 470 × 30 + 30 × 10 = 14100 + 300 = 14400 m3 Let h be the height to which the field is raised when the earth dug out is spread. Then, 14400 × h = 7200 \ h = 0.5 m 110. (b)

198

194 –2

185

2

–3

2

169 –4

2

–5

6

5

8

9

12

+1 +2 +1 +2 +1 113. (c) The series progress with a difference of – 5.

114. (b) 115. (a)

0

2 +2

6 +4

12 +6

20 +8

30

10609 = 103, by long division method, as below:

103 10 10609 100 203 609 609 0

below:

8959 8959 = 26.35 Þ x = = 17 x´ 4´5 26.35 ´ 20

120. (a) ? = 3739 + 164 × 27 = 3739 + 4428 » 8200 121. (b) Both live together to derive benefits from each other. 122. (d) In others there is a gap of one letter between the first and the second letters of the group. 123. (c)

C O R P O R A T E

+10

10609 ´ 7938.81

Also,

So,

2

11

1 » 0.5 2

117. (b) 18.4% of 656 + 12.7% of 864 = 0.184 × 656 + 0.127 × 864 = 120.704 + 109.728 = 230.432 » 231 118. (a) (98.4)2 + (33.6)2 = 9682.56 + 1128.96 = 10811.52 » 10812 119. (d) Let there be x in place of question mark

144

111. (c) The first, third, fifth .... and second, fourth .... terms are groups of consecutive natural numbers. 112. (b)

Þ x=

7938.81 = 89.1 , by long division method, as

Three pairs — (P, R), (R, T) and (P, O) have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet. But since the letters must be in the same sequence in the word as in English alphabet, so that desire pairs are (P, R) and (R, T) only. 124. (d) Clearly, we have : COMPREHENSION ® (COM) (PREHENS) (ION) ® COMIONSNEHERP The middle letter is the seventh letter, which is S. 125. (b) Clearly 6th position from right (Mona) is 13th position from left. That means there are 13 + 5 = 18 children in the row. Hence 5th position from left will be 18 – 5 + 1 = 14th from right (Mona’s new position). Previous K M 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

19 Present M K 126. (a) RBM STD BRO PUS º the cat is beautiful ....(i) TNH PUS DIM STD º the dog is brown ....(ii) PUS DIM BRO PUS CUS º the dog has the cat ....(iii) (i) and (ii) Þ STD PUS º is (ii) and (iii) Þ PUS DIM º the dog (i) and (iii) Þ PUS BRO º the cat \ From (iii), CUS º has 127. (b) As, Similarly, +2

G ¾¾® I +2 L ¾¾® N

N ¬¾¾ L ü ï -2 A ¬¾¾ Y ï -2 X ¬¾¾ V ïï -2 A ¬¾¾ Y ï ýÞ -2 L ¬¾¾ J ï -2 I ¬¾¾ G ï ï -2 T ¬¾¾ R ï ï -2 E ¬¾¾ C þ -2

+2

R ¾¾® T +2 C ¾¾® E +2

E ¾¾® G +2 P ¾¾® R +2

Y ¾¾® A +2 R ¾¾® T +2 C ¾¾® E 128. (d) In the code, night is called sunshine. As we sleep in night, the correct answer is sunshine. 129. (a) As X is the son of Y’s father and Y is the sister of X and thus, he has to be the brother of Y.

130. (c)

Post Office

E

100m

100m

50 m 40 m Shantivilla

Postman

From the diagram, E is the final point where postman has reached. Hence his distance from the post office = 40 + 50m = 90m. Clouds

Boys

Cars

Flowers

132. (a)

Bricks

or Boys

Lions

Horses

Flowers

Houses

or

Bricks

Either

Ducks

or

Lions

Fruits Horses

Conclusions : I. II. III. IV. 134. (d) Statements : Conclusions : Statements : Conclusions :

(´) Conversion of C (ü) Either (ü) Conversion of A (´) Some stones are bricks. Some bricks are stone. (conversion) All plants are stones. Some plants are stones. (Implication) Some stones are plants. (conversion) Statements : No flower is plant. Conclusions : Some flowers are not plant. (Implication) No plant is flower. (Conversion) Statements : No flower is plant. All plants are stones. Conclusions : Some stones are not flower. (E + A = O* type) Since, II and III form a complementary I-E pair, either of two must follow. 135. (c) Statements : All tigers are jungles. Conclusions : Some tigers are jungles. (Implication) Some jungles are tigers. (conversion) Statements : No jungle is bird. Conclusions : Some jungle are not bird. (Implication) No bird is jungle. (conversion) Statements : Some birds are rains. Conclusions : Some rains are birds. (conversion) Statements : All tigers are jungles.

No jungle is bird. No tiger is bird. (A + E = E-type) No bird is tiger. (conversion)

Hence III follows. Statements : No jungle is bird. Some birds are rains. Conclusions : Some rains are not jungle. (E + I = O* type) Since I and II form a complementary E-I pair, either of two must follow.

(ü) (´) (´) (ü) Convesion of A

Pens

Fruits

Conclusions :

Rains

Cars

Conclusions: I. II. III. IV.

133. (b)

(´) (´) (ü) (´)

Ducks

Clouds

Rains

131. (d)

Conclusions : I. II. III. IV.

Houses Pens

20 For (Qs. 136-140) The given information can be summarized as follows.

I Member P Department Not

S Acc

Acc

F

M

clear

M

Sex

Floors II N T

M

III Q

Per- Acct. Adm. sonnel

F

M

F

136. (a) From the analysis of table constructed above, SQT is the group of females. 137. (c) Clearly, T works in personnel. 138. (e) N and T work on the second floor. 139. (c) To maintain the original distribution of females on each floor, Q must be transferred to personnel. 140. (d) Data is inadequate to determine the department of P. From the information provided only we can say that Q works in administration. 141. (c)

Letter E H N D J V Code

#

4

2

3 9

8

Condition is applied. 142. (e)

143. (a)

Conclusions : I. K = F (P) II. F < K (P) Either Hence, either I or II is true. 149. (e) W > S, K £ Z, U ³ W, S = K U³W>S=K£Z Conclusions : I. U > K (P) II. Z > S (P) Hence, both I and II are true. 150. (e) G = E ....(i), D < K ...(ii), E < S .....(iii), K £ G D
Symbol

153. (c)

Symbol

3BE 4#W 9A2J K* 15 UQR 7 F@HI 6 $V No. Cons

No. Cons

6th to the right

Letter K Q D J N H Code 7 6 3 9 2 4

154. (d) 3 B E 4 # W 9 A 2 J K * 1 5 U Q R 7 F @ H I 6 $ V

Letter A J

N V Q E

Code

2

155. (e) In all other second and third elements are to the right and left of the first element respectively. 156. (d) The smaller arrow moves through 90° and 45° anticlockwise respectively while the bigger one moves through 135° in each subssequent figure clockwise. 157. (c) The movement of design is as follows:

#

9

8

6

#

Condition is applied. 144. (b)

Letter Q H J V N D ü ý Code 6 4 9 8 2 3 þ

145. (d)

Letter J K E D H A Code 9 7 1 3 4 #

Condition is applied. For (Qs. 146-149) Symbols @ + † Ä $ Meaning > ³ < £ = K > P, M < T, P ³ M K>P³M M (P) II. G = P (×) Hence, only conclusion I is true. 147. (b) R ³ N, S £ Q, P > N, Q = P S£Q=P>N£R Conclusions : I. S = N (×) II. P ³ N (P) Hence, only conclusion II is true. 148. (c) G = K, F > J, K ³ Q, Q £ F G=K³Q³F>J 146. (a) T = G,

11th from the right

Problem fig. 1 to 2 Problem fig. 2 to 3 Problem fig. 3 to 4 Problem fig. 4 to 5 Problem fig. 5 to answer fig. 6 158. (b) In each subsequent figure the design moves through 90° anticlockwise and shifts diagonally halfway while the arrow shifts halfway diagonally and is each time inverted. 159. (a) From problem figure (1) to (2) both the lower designs and both the upper designs inrterchanged their positions. From problem figures (2) and (3) both the upper designs shift lower and vice-vrsa. The same order of change is repeated. 160. (c) From problem figure (1) to (2) both the lower designs reverse. From problem figure. (2) to (3) third design from the bottom reverses. From problem figure (3) to (4) first and fourth designs from the bottom reverse. From problem figure (4) to (5) second design from the bottom reverses. Hence from problem figure (5) to (6) third and fourth designs from the bottom will reverse.