CAREER POINT
TEST SERIES FOR RE-AIPMT 2015 TEST # 4 (MAJOR TEST) PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BIOLOGY Physics
:
Full syllabus
Chemistry :
Full syllabus
Biology
Full syllabus
:
Duration : 3 Hrs.
Max. Marks : 720
Name : ____________________________________ Roll No. : ______________________ Date : _______________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE GENERAL: 1. This paper contains 180 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory.
3. Write your Name, Roll No. & Date in the space provided on this cover page of question paper. 4. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work. 5. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately. 6. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilator. 7. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and Electronic Gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
MARKING SCHEME: 1. This paper contains, Single correct option, Sub option, Column Matching type and Diagram based question. 2. Only one option is correct out of four given options. For each incorrect response, one‐mark would be deducted. 3. In Physics
: Q. 1
‐ 45 carry 4 marks each,
In Chemistry : Q. 46 ‐ 90 carry 4 marks each,
In Biology
: Q. 91 ‐ 180 carry 4 marks each, CAREER POINT: CP Tower, Road No. 1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
SEAL
2. There is Negative Marking.
Space for Rough Work
PHYSICS Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
The dimensions of gravitational constant G are (2) [ML3T–2] (1) [MLT–2] (3) [M–1L3T–2] (4) [M–1LT–2]
Q.1
A hall has the dimensions 10 m × 12 m × 14 m. A fly starting at one corner ends up at a diametrically opposite corner. What is the magnitude of its displacement ? (1) 17 m (2) 26 m (3) 36 m (4) 21 m
Q.2
A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α
Q.3
(1) [MLT–2] (3) [M–1L3T–2]
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired by the car is -
(3)
Q.4
Q.6
⎛ α 2 – β2 (2) ⎜⎜ ⎝ αβ
(4)
⎞ ⎟ t ⎟ ⎠
a:
b
(2) 26 m (4) 21 m
,d dkj dqN le; ds fy, fojkekoLFkk ls α dh fu;r nj ls Rofjr gksrh gS, mlds ckn ;g β dh fu;r nj ls efUnr gksrh gS rFkk fojkekoLFkk esa vk tkrh gSA ;fn dqy O;rhr le; t gS, rks dkj }kjk izkIr vf/kdre osx D;k gksxk ⎛ α 2 + β2 (1) ⎜⎜ ⎝ αβ (α + β) t (3) αβ
αβt α+β
Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are dropped from two different heights a and b. The ratio of the time taken by the two to cover these distances are (1) a : b (2) b : a (3)
Q.5
( α + β) t αβ
⎞ ⎟ t ⎟ ⎠
Q.4
(2) [ML3T–2] (4) [M–1LT–2]
,d cM+s dejs dh foek;sa 10 m × 12 m × 14 m gSA ,d eD[kh ,d dksus ls mM+uk izkjEHk djrh gS rFkk fod.khZ; foijhr dksus ij mM+uk can djrh gSA blds foLFkkiu dk ifjek.k D;k gS ? (1) 17 m (3) 36 m
for some time, after which it decelerates at a
⎛ α 2 + β2 (1) ⎜⎜ ⎝ αβ
xq:Roh; fu;rkad G dh foek,¡ gSa -
⎞ ⎟ t ⎟ ⎠
⎛ α 2 – β2 (2) ⎜⎜ ⎝ αβ αβt (4) α+β
⎞ ⎟ t ⎟ ⎠
fHkUu nzO;eku ma o mb dh nks xsans nks fHkUu Å¡pkbZ;ksa a o b ls fxjk;h tkrh gSA nksuksa xsanksa }kjk bu Å¡pkb;ksa
ls fxjus esa yxs le;ksa esa vuqikr gSa (1) a : b (3)
(4) a2 : b2
A body dropped from top of a tower fall through 60 m during the last two seconds of its fall. The height of tower is - (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 95 m (2) 60 m (3) 80 m (4) 90 m
Q.5
A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 m/s making an angle of 30º with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time (1) 1.5 s (2) 1 s (3) 3 s (4) 2 s
Q.6
a:
b
(4) a2 : b2
,d oLrq dks ,d ehukj dh pksVh ls fxjk;s tkus ij ;g fxjus ds vfUre nks lsd.M ds nkSjku 60 m fxjrk gSA ehukj dh Å¡pkbZ gS - (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 95 m (3) 80 m
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(2) b : a
(2) 60 m (4) 90 m
,d oLrq dks {kSfrt ls 30º dk dks.k cukrs gq;s 9.8 m/s ds osx ls QSadk tkrk gSA ;g fdrus le; ckn /kjkry ls Vdjk;sxh (1) 1.5 s (3) 3 s
(2) 1 s (4) 2 s 1
Q.7
A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time ? B
(1) gμ /v (3) v/g Q.8
(1) (3) Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
B
(1) gμ /v (3) v/g
(2) g/v (4) v/(gμ).
v0
mv02 3 mv02 2 x 02
(4)
Q.8
(1)
2 x 02 2 mv02 3 x 02
Three point masses m1, m2, m3 are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of length 'a'. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis along the altitude of the triangle passing through m1 is -
(2) g/v (4) v/(gμ).
v0
C
mv 02
(3) Q.9
v
m nzO;eku dk ,d CykWd C, v0 osx ls xfr'khy gS rFkk ;g m nzO;eku ds CykWd A ds lkFk izR;kLFkr% Vdjkrk gS tks k cy fu;rkad dh ,d fLiazx }kjk 2m nzO;eku ds ,d vU; CykWd B ls tqM+k gqvk gSA k D;k gksxk ;fn x0 fLiazx dk laihM+u gks tc A rFkk B dk osx leku gS ?
B
A
(2)
x 02
,d xqVdk B ,d {kSfrt i`"B ds vuqfn'k {kf.kd :i ls izkjfEHkd osx v ls vidf"kZr fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn i`"B ,oa xqVds B ds chp lihZ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad μ gks, rks xqVdk B fdrus le; ckn fojkekoLFkk esa vk tk,xk ?
v
A block C of mass m is moving with velocity v0 and collides elastically with block A of mass m and connected to another block B of mass 2m through spring constant k. What is k if x0 is compression of spring when velocity of A and B is same ? C
Q.7
mv02
(2)
x 02 3 mv02 2 x 02
B
A
(4)
mv 02 2 x 02 2 mv02 3 x 02
m1, m2, m3 rhu fcUnq nzO;eku, 'a' yEckbZ ds ,d
leckgq f=kHkqt ds 'kh"kks± ij j[ks gSA fudk; dk f=kHkqt dh Å¡pkbZ ds vuqfn'k m1 ls xqtjus okyh ,d v{k ds ifjr% tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS -
(1) (m2 + m3)
a2 4
(2) (m1 + m2 + m3) a2
(1) (m2 + m3)
a2 4
(2) (m1 + m2 + m3) a2
(3) (m1 + m2)
a2 4
(4) (m2 + m3) a2
(3) (m1 + m2)
a2 4
(4) (m2 + m3) a2
If a sphere is rolling, the ratio of its rotational kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy is (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 5 (3) 2 : 7 (4) 5 : 7
Q.10
Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1 – x) M. For a given separation, the value of x for which the gravitational attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is 1 3 (2) (3) 1 (4) 2 (1) 2 5
Q.11
;fn ,d xksyk yq<+d jgk gks, rks bldh ?kw.kZu xfrt ÅtkZ rFkk dqy xfrt ÅtkZ dk vuqikr gS (1) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 7
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(2) 2 : 5 (4) 5 : 7
nzO;eku M dks nks Hkkxksa xM rFkk (1 – x) M esa foHkDr fd;k tkrk gSA nh xbZ nwjh ds fy,, x dk eku ftlds fy, nksuksa VqdM+ksa ds chp xq:Rokd"kZ.k cy vf/kdre gks tk;s, gS (1)
1 2
(2)
3 5
(3) 1
(4) 2 2
It is desired to photograph the image of an object placed at a distance of 3 m from a plane mirror. The camera which is at a distance of 4.5 m from the mirror hould be focussed for a distance of ? (1) 3 m (2) 4.5 m (3) 6 m (4) 7.5 m
Q.12
Q.13
A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should be the microscope be moved to get the mark again in focus ? (1) 2 cm upward (2) 1 cm upward (3) 4.5 cm upward (4) 1 cm downward
Q.13
dkxt ds ,d VqdM+s ij yxs fu'kku ij ,d lw{en'khZ dks Qksdl fd;k x;k gS rFkk rc eksVkbZ 3 cm rFkk viorZukad 1.5 okys dk¡p ds xqVds dks fu'kku ds Åij j[kk x;k gSA fu'kku ij iqu% Qksdl djus ds fy, lw{en'khZ dks fdruk pykuk gksxk ? (1) 2 cm Åij (2) 1 cm Åij (3) 4.5 cm Åij (4) 1 cm ls uhps
Q.14
A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and R of identical shape and material are now added to P, as shown in the figure. The ray will suffer –
Q.14
,d leckgq fizTe P ij ,d izdk'k fdj.k esa U;wure fopyu gksrk gSA fp=kkuqlkj mlh vkd`fr ds vU; fizTeksa Q vkSj R dks Hkh P esa tksM+k x;k gSA fdj.k esa gksxk -
Q.12
P
Q
,d lery niZ.k ls 3 m dh nwjh ij j[kh ,d oLrq ds izfrfcEc dk QksVksxzkQ fy;k tkrk gSA niZ.k ls 4.5 m dh nwjh ij fLFkr dSejs dks fdl nwjh ij Qksdl fd;k tkuk pkfg;s ? (1) 3 m (3) 6 m
(2) 4.5 m (4) 7.5 m
P
R
Q
R
(1) vf/kd fopyu
(1) greater deviation (2) same deviation (3) no deviation (4) total internal reflection
(2) leku fopyu (3) dksbZ fopyu ugha (4) iw.kZ vkUrfjd ijkorZu
Q.15
In interference pattern, the energy is (1) created at the maximum (2) destroyed at the minimum (3) conserved but redistributed (4) all of the above
Q.15
O;frdj.k uewus esa, ÅtkZ (1) mfPp"B ij mRiUu gksrh gS (2) fufEu"B ij u"V gksrh gS (3) lajf{kr jgrh gS ysfdu iqu% forfjr gksrh gS (4) mijksä lHkh
Q.16
The fringe width in Young's double slit experiment increases when (1) wavelength increases (2) distance between source and screen decreases (3) distance between slits increases (4) the width of the slits increases
Q.16
;ax f}fLyV iz;ksx esa fÝUt pkSM+kbZ c<+rh gS, tc (1) rjaxnS/;Z c<+rk gS (2) L=kksr vkSj insZ ds chp nwjh ?kVrh gS (3) fLyVksa ds chp nwjh c<+rh gS (4) fLyVksa dh pkSM+kbZ c<+rh gS
Q.17
The angle of deviation for a prism is greatest for (1) red colour (2) violet colour (3) blue colour (4) green colour
Q.17
fizTe dk fopyu dks.k vf/kdre gksxk, fuEu ds fy;s (2) cSaxuh jax (1) yky jax (4) gjk jax (3) uhyk jax
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
3
Q.18
Q.19
A simple pendulum 4 m long swings with an amplitude of 0.2 m. What is its acceleration at the ends of its path ? (g = 10 m/s2) (1) zero (2) 10 m/s2 (3) 0.5 m/s2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
Q.18
A pendulum of length 10 cm is hanged by wall making an angle 3° with vertical. It is swinged to position B. Time period of pendulum will be -
Q.19
4 m yEck ,d ljy yksyd 0.2 m vk;ke ds lkFk
nksyu djrk gSA blds iFk ds pje fcUnqvksa ij bldk Roj.k D;k gS ? (g = 10 m/s2) (2) 10 m/s2 (1) 'kwU; (3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) 2.5 m/s2
10 cm yEck ,d yksyd Å/okZ/kj ds lkFk 3° dk dks.k cuk jgh ,d nhokj ls yVdk gqvk gSA bls fLFkfr B rd >qyk;k tkrk gSA yksyd dk vkorZdky gksxk -
3° 6°
3° 6° B
B
A
Q.20
Q.21
Q.22
A
(1) π/5 sec
(1) π/5 sec
2π sec (2) 15
(2)
(3) π/6 sec (4) Subsequent motion will not be periodic
(3) π/6 sec (4) mÙkjksÙkj xfr vkorhZ ugha gksxh
A point source is emitting sound in all directions. The ratio of distance of two points from the point source where the difference in loudness levels is 3dB, is - (log10 2 = 0.3) 2 1 1 1 (2) (3) (4) (1) 3 2 4 2
Q.20
The apparent frequency of the whistle of an engine changes by the ratio 5/3 as the engine passes a stationary observer. If the velocity of sound is 340 m/s, then the velocity of the engine is (1) 340 m/s (2) 170 m/s (3) 85 m/s (4) 42.5 m/s
Q.21
For V versus T curves at constant pressure P1 and P2 for an ideal gas shown in figure. P2
Q.22
2π sec 15
,d fcUnq L=kksr lHkh fn'kkvksa esa /ofu mRlftZr dj jgk gSA fcUnq L=kksr ls nks fcUnqvksa dh nwjh dk vuqikr tgk¡ /ofu dh izcyrk dk Lrj 3dB gks, gS - (log10 2 = 0.3) (1)
1 2
(2)
1
(3)
2
(4)
2 3
,d batu dh lhVh dh vkHkklh vko`fÙk 5/3 vuqikr ls ifjofrZr gksrh gS] tc batu ,d fLFkj izs{kd dks ikj djrk gSA ;fn /ofu dk osx 340 m/s gS] rc batu dk osx gS (1) 340 m/s (3) 85 m/s
(2) 170 m/s (4) 42.5 m/s
,d vkn'kZ xSl ds fy, fu;r nkc P1 rFkk P2 ij fp=k esa n'kkZ,uqlkj V o T oØksa ds fy, P2
P1
V
1 4
P1
V
T
T
(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P1 ≥ P2
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(1) P1 > P2 (3) P1 = P2
(2) P1 < P2 (4) P1 ≥ P2 4
Q.23
Four particles have speeds 2, 3, 4 and 5 cm/s respectively. Their rms speed is(1) 3.5 cm/s (2) (27/2) cm/s (3)
Q.24
54 cm/s
Q.23
(4) ( 54 / 2) cm/s
If solar constant of earth is S and radius of earth
Q.24
is r then total heat receive by earth per sec. (1) S × 4πr2
(2) S × 2πr2
(3) Sπr2
(4) S
pkj d.k ftudh pky Øe'k% 2, 3, 4 rFkk 5 cm/s gSA budh oxZ ek/; ewy pky gS (1) 3.5 cm/s
(2) (27/2) cm/s
(3)
(4) ( 54 / 2) cm/s
54 cm/s
;fn i`Foh dk lkSj fu;rkad S rFkk i`Foh dh f=kT;k r gks rks i`Foh }kjk izfr lsd.M izkIr (receive) dqy Å"ek gS(1) S × 4πr2 (3) Sπr2
(2) S × 2πr2 (4) S
Q.25
The mean lives of a radioactive substance are 1620 year and 405 year for α-emission and β-emission respectively. Find the time during which threefourth of a sample will decay if it is decaying both by α-emission and β-emission simultaneously. (1) 249 years (2) 449 years (3) 133 years (4) 99 years
Q.25
,d jsfM;kslfØ; inkFkZ dk α-mRltZu rFkk β-mRltZu ds fy, ek/; vk;q dky Øe'k% 1620 o"kZ rFkk 405 o"kZ gSA og le; Kkr dhft;s ftlds nkSjku ,d uewus dk rhu pkSFkkbZ {kf;r gks tk;sxk ;fn ;g ,d lkFk α-mRltZu rFkk β-mRltZu nksuksa }kjk {kf;r gks jgk gSA (1) 249 o"kZ (2) 449 o"kZ (3) 133 o"kZ (4) 99 o"kZ
Q.26
A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having radii in the ratio 1 : 2. Their velocities are in ratio (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1
Q.26
fojke esa fLFkr ,d ukfHkd nks ukfHkdh; Hkkxksa esa VwV tkrk gS, ftudh f=kT;kvksa dk vuqikr 1 : 2 gSA muds osxksa dk vuqikr gS -
A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 × 106 m/s. The velocity of the particle is (1) 3 × 10–31 m/s (2) 2.7 × 10–21 m/s –18 (3) 2.7 × 10 m/s (4) None of these
Q.27
A resistor 30 Ω, inductor of reactance 10 Ω and capacitor of reactance 10 Ω are connected in
Q.28
Q.27
Q.28
Q.29
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 8 : 1
1 mg nzO;eku ds ,d d.k dh rjaxnS/;Z] 3 × 106 m/s
ds osx ls xfreku ,d bysDVªkWu dh rjaxnS/;Z ds leku gSA d.k dk osx gS (1) 3 × 10–31 m/s (3) 2.7 × 10–18 m/s
(2) 2.7 × 10–21 m/s (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
series to an AC voltage source e = 300 2 sin (ωt). The current in the circuit is -
,d 30 Ω izfrjks/k dk izfrjks/kd, 10 Ω izfr?kkr dk ,d izsjd rFkk 10 Ω izfr?kkr dk ,d la/kkfj=k] ,d AC oksYVrk L=kksr e = 300 2 sin (ωt) ls Js.khØe esa tqM+s gSA ifjiFk esa /kkjk gS -
(1) 10 2 A
(2) 10 A
(1) 10 2 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 30 11 A
(4) 30 / 11 A
(3) 30 11 A
(4) 30 / 11 A
In an AC circuit the emf (e) and the current (i) at any instant are given respectively by e = E0 sin ωt, i = I0 sin (ωt – φ)
Q.29
The average power in the circuit over one cycle of AC is E 0I0 cos φ 2 E I (3) 0 0 2
(1)
(2) E0I0 (4)
E 0I0 sin φ 2
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
,d AC ifjiFk esa fo|qr okgd cy (e) rFkk fdlh {k.k ij /kkjk (i) Øe'k% fuEu }kjk fn;s x;s gS e = E0 sin ωt, i = I0 sin (ωt – φ) AC ds ,d pØ ds nkSjku ifjiFk esa vkSlr 'kfä gS E I (1) 0 0 cos φ (2) E0I0 2 E I E I (3) 0 0 (4) 0 0 sin φ 2 2
5
Q.30
In the given circuit, the current through the resistor 2 kΩ is –
Q.30
fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa izfrjks/kd 2 kΩ ls izokfgr /kkjk gS 1kΩ + 20V –
1kΩ + 20V –
(1) 2 mA (3) 6 mA Q.31
Q.32
12V
2kΩ
(2) 4 mA (4) 10 mA
A pure Ge specimen is doped with Al. The number density of acceptor atoms is approximately 1021 m–3. If density of electron hole pair in an intrinsic semiconductor is approximately 1019 m–3, the number density of electrons in the specimen is (1) 104 m–3 (2) 102 m–3 (3) 1017 m–3 (4) 1015 m–3
Q.31
The combination of the following gates produces -
Q.32
A B
(1) AND gate (3) NOR gate Q.33
Q.34
(1) 2 mA
(2) 4 mA
(3) 6 mA
(4) 10 mA
,d 'kq) Ge (tesZfu;e) uewus esa Al v'kqf) ds :i esa feyk;k tkrk gSA xzkgh ijek.kqvksa dk la[;k ?kuRo 1021 m–3 gSA ;fn ,d uSt v)Zpkyd esa bysDVªkWu-gksy
;qXe dk ?kuRo 1019 m–3 gks, rks uewus esa bysDVªkWuksa dk la[;k ?kuRo gksxk (1) 104 m–3 (3) 1017 m–3
(2) 102 m–3 (4) 1015 m–3
xsVksa ds fuEu la;kstu ls curk gS A B
Y
(2) NAND gate (4) OR gate
The real angle of dip, if a magnet is suspended at an angle of 30º to the magnetic meridian and the dip needle makes an angle of 45º with horizontal is -
2kΩ
12V
Q.33
Y
(1) AND xsV
(2) NAND xsV
(3) NOR xsV
(4) OR xsV
;fn pqEcdh; ;kE;ksÙkj esa ,d pqEcd dks 30º dks.k ij yVdk;k tkrk gS, rc ufr lqbZ {kSfrt ls 45º dk dks.k cukrh gSA okLrfod ufr gS -
⎛ 3⎞ ⎟ (1) tan–1 ⎜ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 2 ⎠
(2) tan–1( 3 )
⎛ 3⎞ ⎟ (1) tan–1 ⎜ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 2 ⎠
(2) tan–1( 3 )
⎛ 3⎞ ⎟ (3) tan–1 ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎝ 2⎠
⎛ 2 ⎞ ⎟⎟ (4) tan–1 ⎜⎜ ⎝ 3⎠
⎛ 3⎞ ⎟ (3) tan–1 ⎜ ⎜ 2⎟ ⎝ ⎠
⎛ 2 ⎞ ⎟⎟ (4) tan–1 ⎜⎜ ⎝ 3⎠
A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is connected
Q.34
to a battery of 3V along with a resistance of 2950 Ω in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions the resistance in series should be (1) 4450 Ω
(2) 5050 Ω
(3) 5550 Ω
(4) 6050 Ω
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izfrjks/k 50 Ω ds ,d /kkjkekih dks 3V dh ,d cSVjh rFkk 2950 Ω ds izfrjks/k ds Js.khØe esa yxk;k x;k gSA bl /kkjkekih esa 30 Hkkxksa dk ,d iw.kZ iSekus ij fo{ksi izkIr fd;k x;k gSA bl fo{ksi dks 20 Hkkxksa rd lhfer djus ds fy;s Js.khØe esa iz;ksx fd;k tkus okyk izfrjks/k gksuk pkfg, (1) 4450 Ω (3) 5550 Ω
(2) 5050 Ω (4) 6050 Ω 6
Q.35
Current I is flowing in a conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The radius of curved part is r and length of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre O will be -
Q.35
fp=k esa iznf'kZr vkd`fr ds pkyd esa izokfgr /kkjk I gSaA blds oØ Hkkx dh f=kT;k r gS rFkk lh/kk Hkkx vR;f/kd yEckbZ dk gSA dsUnz O ij pqEcdh; {ks=k dk eku gS I
I
I
r
I
r
I
I
(3)
Q.36
μ I ⎡ 3π ⎤ (2) 0 ⎢ − 1⎥ 4πr ⎣ 2 ⎦
μ0I ⎡ π ⎤ + 1⎥ 4πr ⎣⎢ 2 ⎦
(4)
μ0I ⎡ π ⎤ – 1⎥ 4πr ⎣⎢ 2 ⎦
The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long current carrying conductor will be -
Q.36
μ 0 I ⎡ 3π ⎤ + 1⎥ 4πr ⎢⎣ 2 ⎦
(2)
μ 0 I ⎡ 3π ⎤ − 1⎥ 4πr ⎢⎣ 2 ⎦
(3)
μ0I ⎡ π ⎤ + 1⎥ 4πr ⎢⎣ 2 ⎦
(4)
μ0I ⎡ π ⎤ – 1⎥ 4πr ⎣⎢ 2 ⎦
,d yEcs /kkjkokgh pkyd ds dkj.k /kkjk ywi PQRS ij ifj.kkeh cy gksxk -
R
20A
20A
20A
Q
P
10 cm 2cm
2cm
(1) 10–4 N (3) 1.8 × 10–4 N Q.37
(2) 3.6 × 10–4 N (4) 5 × 10–4 N
The equivalent resistance between the points A
Q.37
and B will be - (each resistance is 15 Ω)
Q
10 cm
(2) 3.6 × 10–4 N
(3) 1.8 × 10–4 N
(4) 5 × 10–4 N
fcUnqvksa A rFkk B ds chp rqY; izfrjks/k gksxk – (izR;sd izfrjks/k 15 Ω dk gS) 15Ω
C
D
15Ω
C 15Ω
15Ω
15Ω
15Ω
15Ω
15Ω
15Ω
B
A
20A
(1) 10–4 N
15Ω D
R
S
15 cm
S
P
(1)
15 cm
μ I ⎡ 3π ⎤ (1) 0 ⎢ + 1⎥ 4πr ⎣ 2 ⎦
A
15Ω
(1) 30 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 10 Ω
(4) 40 Ω
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
15Ω
B
(1) 30 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 10 Ω
(4) 40 Ω
7
Q.38
In the circuit shown, if the 10 Ω resistance is
Q.38
iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa ;fn 10 Ω ds izfrjks/k dks 20 Ω ds
replaced by 20 Ω then what is the amount of
izfrjks/k }kjk foLFkkfir fd;k tk;s, rc cSVjh ls yh xbZ
current drawn from the battery ?
/kkjk dh ek=kk D;k gS ?
8Ω
3Ω
3Ω
10Ω
Q.39
Q.40
10Ω
24Ω
9Ω
4A
8Ω
4A
9Ω
24Ω
(1) 10 A
(2) 4 A
(1) 10 A
(2) 4 A
(3) 8 A
(4) 2 A
(3) 8 A
(4) 2 A
The internal resistance of a cell of emf 4 V is
Q.39
fo-ok-cy 4 V okys lSy dk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k 0.1Ω gSA
0.1Ω. It is connected to a resistance of 3.9Ω. The
bls 3.9Ω izfrjks/k ls tksM+k x;k gSA lSy ij foHkokUrj
voltage across the cell will be -
gksxk -
(1) 3.9 V
(1) 3.9 V
(2) 2 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 0.1 V
(3) 0.1 V
(4) 3.8 V
(4) 3.8 V
Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and
Q.40
f=kT;k a vkSj b(b > a) ds nks xksyh; pkyd A vkSj B
b(b > a) are placed concentrically in air. B is
ok;q esa ladsUnzh; j[ks gSaA B dks ,d vkos'k +Q fn;k
given a charge +Q and A is earthed. The equivalent
x;k gS rFkk A dks HkwlEifdZr fd;k x;k gSA ladk; dh
capacitance of the system is -
lerqY; /kkfjrk gksxh -
+ ++ + +
+ ++ + + + + + + a + + + + + b + + + ++ +++ +Q
+ + + + a + + + + + b + + + ++ +++ +Q
⎛ ab ⎞ (1) 4πε0 ⎜ ⎟ ⎝b–a⎠
(2) 4πε0 (a + b) (3) 4πε0b
(2) 4πε0 (a + b) (3) 4πε0b
⎛ b ⎞ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝b–a⎠
(4) 4πε0 ⎜⎜
⎛ ab ⎞ ⎟ ⎝b–a⎠
(1) 4πε0 ⎜
2
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
⎛ b2 ⎞ ⎟ (4) 4πε0 ⎜⎜ ⎟ b – a ⎠ ⎝ 8
Q.41
Four metallic plates, each with a surface area of
Q.41
one side A and placed at a distance d from each
pkj /kkRoh; IysVksa dks, ftuesa izR;sd ds ,d vksj dk i`"B {ks=kQy A rFkk ,d-nwljs ls d nwjh ij gSaA IysVksa
other. The plates are connected as shown in the
dks layXu fp=kkuqlkj tksM+k x;k gSA rc a vkSj b ds
fig. Then the capacitance of the system between
chp ladk; dh /kkfjrk gS -
a and b is 1 2 3 4
Q.42
b
(1)
3 ∈0 A d
(1)
3 ∈0 A d
(2)
2 ∈0 A d
(2)
2 ∈0 A d
(3)
2 ∈0 A 3 d
(3)
(4)
3 ∈0 A 2 d
2 ∈0 A 3 d
(4)
3 ∈0 A 2 d
Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear
Q.42
a
b
nks vuUr yEcs lekUrj rkjksa dks ftuds js[kh; vkos'k
charge densities λ1 and λ2 respectively are
?kuRo Øe'k% λ1 o λ2 gS, ijLij R ehVj dh nwjh ij
placed at a distance of R metres. The force per
j[kk x;k gSA fdlh ,d rkj ij izfr ,dkad yEckbZ dk
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎟. unit length on either wire will be ⎜⎜ K = 4πε 0 ⎟⎠ ⎝
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎟ cy gksxk ⎜⎜ K = ⎟
(1) K
Q.43
1 2 3 4
a
⎝
2λ1λ 2 R2
(1) K
2λ1λ 2 R2
(2) K
2λ1λ 2 R
(2) K
2λ1λ 2 R
(3) K.
λ1λ 2 R2
(3) K.
λ1λ 2 R2
(4) K
λ1λ 2 R
(4) K
λ1λ 2 R
A point charge q is placed at a distance a/2
Q.43
directly above the centre of a square of side a. The electric flux through the square is (1)
q ε0
(2)
q πε 0
(3)
q 4ε 0
(4)
q 6ε 0
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
4πε 0 ⎠
,d fcUnq vkos'k q, Hkqtk a ds ,d oxZ ds dsUnz ds Bhd Åij a/2 nwjh ij j[kk gSA oxZ ls xqtjus okyk fo|qr ¶yDl gS q ε0 q (3) 4ε 0 (1)
q πε 0 q (4) 6ε 0
(2)
9
Q.44
Three concentric conducting spherical shells
Q.44
have radii r, 2r and 3r and charges q1, q2 and q3
rhu ladsUnzh; pkyd xksyh; dks'kksa dh f=kT;k;sa r, 2r rFkk 3r ,oa vkos'k Øe'k% q1, q2 rFkk q3 gSA lcls
respectively. Innermost and outermost shells are
vUnj okys rFkk lcls ckgjh dks'k dks fp=kkuqlkj
earthed as shown in the figure. Select the correct
HkwlEifdZr dj fn;k tkrk gSA lgh fodYi pqfu;s -
alternatives -
q3 q2 q1
q3 q2 q1
r
r
2r
2r
3r
3r
(a) q1 + q3 = – q2 (c)
Q.45
q2 =3 q1
(b) q1 = – (d)
q2 4
(a) q1 + q3 = – q2
1 q3 =– q2 3
(c)
q2 =3 q1
(b) q1 = – (d)
1 q3 =– q2 3
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d
About an electric field, which of the following
q2 4
(a) If E = 0, V must be zero
,d fo|qr {ks=k ds ckjs es,a fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh ugha gS ? (a) ;fn E = 0, rks V vo'; 'kwU; gS
(b) If V = 0, E must be zero
(b) ;fn V = 0, rks E vo'; 'kwU; gS
(c) If E ≠ 0, V cannot be zero
(c) ;fn E ≠ 0, rks V 'kwU; ugha gks ldrk gS
(d) If V ≠ 0, E cannot be zero
(d) ;fn V ≠ 0, rks E 'kwU; ugha gks ldrk gS
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d
(1) a, b (3) b, c, d
Q.45
statements are not true ?
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(2) b, c (4) a, b, c, d
10
CHEMISTRY Q.46
Following solutions at the same temperature will be isotonic: (1) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 0.18 g of glucose in one litre water (2) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 0.18 g of glucose in 0.1 litre water (3) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 0.585 g of NaCl in one litre water (4) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 1.17 g of NaCl in one litre water
Q.46
dkSulk foy;u leku rki ij leijkljh gksxk & (1) ,d yhVj ty esa 3.42 g bZ{kq'kdZjk rFkk ,d yhVj ty esa 0.18 g Xywdkst (2) ,d yhVj ty esa 3.42 g bZ{kq'kdZjk rFkk 0.1 yhVj ty esa 0.18 g Xywdkst (3) ,d yhVj ty esa 3.42 g bZ{kq'kdZjk rFkk ,d yhVj ty esa 0.585 g , NaCl (4) ,d yhVj ty esa 3.42 g bZ{kq'kdZjk rFkk ,d yhVj ty esa 1.17 g NaCl
Q.47
In the following first order competing reactions: A + Reagent → Product B + Reagent → Product The ratio of K1/K2 if only 50% of B will have been reacted when 94% of A has been reacted is: (1) 4.06 (2) 0.246 (3) 2.06 (4) 0.06
Q.47
fuEu izFke dksfV iw.kZ vfHkfØ;kvksa esa] A + vfHkdeZd → mRikn B + vfHkdeZd → mRikn ;fn A dk 94% rFkk B dk 50% fØ;k dj pqds gksrs gS rc K1/K2 dk vuqikr gksxk&
2B(g) + 3C(g). If the In a system: A(s) concentration of C at equilibrium is increased by a factor 2, it will cause the equilibrium concentration of B to change to (1) Two times of its original value (2) One half of its original value
Q.48
Q.48
(1) 4.06 (3) 2.06
(3) 2 2 times of its original value 1 (4) times of its original value 2 2
(2) 0.246 (4) 0.06
fudk; A(s) 2B(g) + 3C(g) esa lkE; ij ;fn C dh lkUnzrk dks nqxuq k dj fn;k tk;s rks B dh lkE; lkUnzrk esa ifjorZu gksxk & (1) blds okLrfod eku dk nksxu q k (2) blds okLrfod eku dk vk/kk (3) blds okLrfod eku dk 2 2 xquk (4) blds okLrfod eku dk
1
xquk
2 2
Q.49
Ka for HCN is 5 × 10–10 at 25ºC. For maintaining a constant pH of 9, the volume of 5M KCN solution required to be added to 10 mL of 2 M HCN solution is: (1) 4 mL (2) 7.95 mL (3) 2 mL (4) 9.3 mL
Q.49
25ºC ij HCN ds fy;s Ka 5 × 10–10 gSA pH = 9 dks fLFkj cuk;s j[kus ds fy;s 2M HCN foy;u ds 10 mL esa 5M KCN foy;u dk fdruk vk;ru feykuk pkfg;s ? (1) 4 mL (2) 7.95 mL (3) 2 mL (4) 9.3 mL
Q.50
Select the correct statement(a) The ionic crystal of AgBr has schottky defect. (b) The unit cell having crystal parameters, a = b ≠ c, α = β = 90º, γ = 120º is hexagonal (c) In ionic compounds having frenkel defect the ratio r+/r– is high (d) The co-ordination number of Na+ ion in NaCl is 6 (1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) b, d (4) a, c
Q.50
lgh dFku dk p;u dhft;s& (a) AgBr ds vk;fud fØLVy esa 'kkWV dh nks"k gksrk gSA (b) fØLVy izkpy a = b ≠ c, α = β = 90º, γ = 120º ;qDr bZdkbZ dksf"Bdk "kV~dks.kh; gksrh gSA (c) Ýsady nks"k ;qDr vk;fud ;kSfxdksa esa r+/r– dk vuqikr mPp gksrk gSA (d) NaCl esa Na+ vk;u dh leUo; la[;k 6 gksrh gSA
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(1) a, b (3) b, d
(2) a, b, c (4) a, c 11
Q.51
Q.52
Q.53
Q.54
pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is measured to be 2. Its osmotic pressure at a given temperature T K is (1) 0.1 RT (2) 0.11 RT (3) 1.1 RT (4) 0.01 RT
Q.51
The pressure of hydrogen gas is increased from 1 atm to 100 atm. Keeping the H+ (1 M) constant, the voltage of the hydrogen half-cell at 25ºC will be (1) 0.059 V (2) 0.59 V (3) 0.0259 V (4) – 0.059 V
Q.52
Half-life of a reaction becomes half when initial concentrations of reactants are made double. The order of reaction will be (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 3
Q.53
An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which
Q.54
x;s rki T K ij bldk ijklj.k nkc gS (1) 0.1 RT (2) 0.11 RT (3) 1.1 RT (4) 0.01 RT
(2) Addition of Na2SO4 (3) Addition of 1.00 molal KI (4) Addition of water
Q.58
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 3
KI dk tyh; foy;u 1.00 eksyy gSA fuEu esa ls
dkSuls ifjorZu ds dkj.k foy;u ds ok"i nkc esa o`f) gksxh ? (1) NaCl feykus ij (2) Na2SO4 feykus ij (3) 1.00 eksyy KI feykus ij (4) ty feykus ij
(1) Addition of NaCl
Q.57
(2) 0.59 V (4) – 0.059 V
tc fØ;kdkjdks dh çkjfEHkd lkaærkvksa dks nqxquk fd;k tk;s rks vfHkfØ;k dh v)Z-vk;q vk/kh gks tkrh gSA vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV gksxh (1) 1
solution to increase ?
Q.56
gkbMªkstu xSl ds nkc dks 1 atm ls 100 atm rd c<+k;k x;kA H+ (1 M) dks fLFkj j[krs gq;s] 25ºC ij gkbMªkstu v)Zlsy dk oksYVst gksxk (1) 0.059 V (3) 0.0259 V
change will cause the vapour pressure of the
Q.55
0.1 M ,dy {kkjh; vEy dk pH, 2 ekik x;kA fn;s
The exhibition of highest coordination number depends on the availability of vacant orbitals in the central atom. Which of the following elements is not likely to act as central atom in [MF6]3– ? (1) B (2) Al (3) Ga (4) In
Q.55
Conc. HNO3 can be stored in container of : (1) Al (2) Zn (3) Cu (4) Sn
Q.56
The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreasing in the sequence : (1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (2) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 (3) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 (4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
Q.57
Which of the following two are isostructural ?
Q.58
mPpre milgla;kstu la[;k dsUnzh; ijek.kq esa fjDr d{kdksa dh miyC/krk ij fuHkZj djrh gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulk rRo] [MF6]3– esa dsUnzh; ijek.kq dh rjg dk;Z ugha djrk gS ? (1) B
(2) Al
(3) Ga
(4) In
lkUnz HNO3 dks fdlds ik=k esa lqjf{kr j[kk tkrk gS : (1) Al
(2) Zn
(3) Cu
(4) Sn
BF3, BCl3 rFkk BBr3 dh yqbZl vEy dh rjg O;ogkj
djus dh izo`fr dk lgh ?kVrk gqvk Øe gS : (1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (2) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 (3) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 (4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
dkSulk ;qXe lelajpukRed gS -
XeF2 , IF2−
(2) NH3, BF3
(1) XeF2 , IF2−
(2) NH3, BF3
(3) CO 32− , SO 32−
(4) PCl5, ICl5
(3) CO 32− , SO 32−
(4) PCl5, ICl5
(1)
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
12
Q.59
Q.60
Q.61
Q.62
Q.63
Q.64
The basic character of the hydrides of group 15 elements decreases in the order : (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (2) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (3) NH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (4) SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > NH3
Q.59
Which of the following is most easily hydrolysed? (1) SF6 (2) NF3 (3) CCl4 (4) TeF6
Q.60
Which of the following is not correct about the chemistry of 3d and 4f-series elements? (1) 3d-series elements show more oxidation states than 4f series elements (2) The energy difference between 3d and 4s-orbitals is very small (3) Europium (II) is more stable than cerium (II) (4) The magnetic character in 3d-series elements increases from Sc to Cu
Q.61
Among the following the coloured compound is : (1) CuCl (2) CuF2 (3) K3[Cu(CN)4] (4) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4
Q.62
Which of the following will show optical isomerism? (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) [ZnCl4]2– 3– (4) [Co(CN)6]3– (3) [Cr(C2O4)3]
Q.63
When excess of ammonia is added to copper
Q.64
veksfu;k ds vkf/kD; esa dkWij lYQsV foy;u feykus ij xgjs uhys jax dk ladqy fufeZr gksrk gSA ladqy gksxk : (1) prq"Qydh;] vuqpqEcdh; (2) prq"Qydh;] izfrpqEcdh; (3) oxZ leryh;] vuqpqEcdh; (4) oxZ leryh;] izfrpqEcdh;
Q.65
+3 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk esa Ce, La, Pm rFkk Yb dh
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (2) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (3) NH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (4) SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > NH3
(2) NF3
(3) CCl4
(4) TeF6
3d rFkk 4f-Js.kh ds rRoksa ds jlk;u ds lUnHkZ esa xyr dFku gS (1) 4f Js.kh dh rRoksa dh vis{kk 3d-Js.kh ds rRo
vf/kd vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk n'kkZrs gS (2) 3d rFkk 4s-d{kdksa ds e/; ÅtkZ dk vUrj cgqr de gksrk gS (3) ;wjksfi;e (II), lhfj;e (II) ls vf/kd LFkk;h gksrk gS (4) 3d-Js.kh ds rRoksa esa Sc ls Cu rd pqEcdh; xq.kksa esa o`f) gksrh gS jaxhu ;kSfxd gS : (1) CuCl (3) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(1) tetrahedral, paramagnetic (2) tetrahedral, diamagnetic (3) square planar, paramagnetic (4) square planar, diamagnetic
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(2) CuF2 (4) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4
fuEu esa ls dkSulk izdkf'kd leko;ork n'kkZrk gS? (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (3) [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
complex is formed. The complex is :
The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm and Yb in +3 oxidation state is : (1) La3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ + Yb3+ (2) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (3) Yb3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ (4) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
dkSulk ;kSfxd lokZf/kd vklkuh ls ty vi?kfVr gksrk gS? (1) SF6
sulphate solution the deep blue coloured
Q.65
oxZ 15 ds rRoksa ds gkbMªkbM~l ds {kkjh; xq.k dk ?kVrk gqvk lgh Øe gS :
(2) [ZnCl4]2– (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
vk;fud f=kT;kvksa dk lgh Øe gS : (1) La3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ + Yb3+ (2) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (3) Yb3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ (4) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
13
Q.66
2-methyl-2-butene is represented as :
Q.66
CH3 | (2) CH3–CH2–C=CH2
CH3 | (2) CH3–CH2–C=CH2
(1) CH3–C=CHCH3 | CH3 (3) CH3–CH–CH=CH2 (4) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 || | CH3 CH2 Q.67
The final product obtained in the reaction is -
CH3CH2COCl AlCl3
(1) H3C–NH
Q.68
(1) CH3–C=CHCH3 | CH3 (3) CH3–CH–CH=CH2 (4) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 | || CH3 CH2 Q.67
CH3CH2COCl AlCl3
O || CH2CH2CCl
(3)
(4)
O || C–CH2CH2NHCH3
When an aromatic compound undergoes ozonolysis followed by treatment with H2O/Zn, it produces glyoxal, monomethylglyoxal and
(1) H3C–NH
The final product obtained in the reaction is :
O || CH2CH2CCl
(3)
(4)
O || C–CH2CH2NHCH3
Q.68
,d ,jksesfVd ;kSfxd ds vkstksuh vi?kVu rr~i'pkr~ H2O/Zn ds lkFk mipkfjr djus ij XykbvkWDlsy] eksuksesfFkyXykbvkWDlsy rFkk MkbZesfFky XykbvkWDlsy izkIr gksrk gSA ;kSfxd gksxk : (1) csathu (2) VkWyqbZu (3) o-tkbfyu (4) m-tkbfyu
Q.69
vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr vfUre mRikn gS :
CH2=CHCH2CH2CO2H ⎯⎯⎯→ HOBr Δ
(1) BrCH2–CH–CH2CH2CO2H | OH (2) HOCH2–CH2CH2CH2CO2H CH2–CH2 (3) BrCH2–CH
CH3NH2 H2, Ni
X
CHCH2CH3 | NHCH3 O || CH2–CH2–C–NHCH3
(2)
dimethylglyoxal. It could be : (1) benzene (2) toluene (3) o-xylene (4) m-xylene Q.69
mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr vfUre mRikn gS :
CH3NH2 H2, Ni
X
CHCH2CH3 | NHCH3 O || CH2–CH2–C–NHCH3
(2)
fuEu esa ls dkSu 2-esfFky-2-C;wVhu gS :
CH2=CHCH2CH2CO2H ⎯HOBr ⎯⎯→ Δ
(1) BrCH2–CH–CH2CH2CO2H | OH (2) HOCH2–CH2CH2CH2CO2H CH2–CH2
C== O
O (4) CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CO | O CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(3) BrCH2–CH
C== O
O (4) CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CO | O 14
Q.70
Q.71
Q.72
In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous NaOH at 345 K, the species attacking the ring is : (2) CHCl2 (1) CHCl3 (4) :CCl2 (3) COCl2
Q.70
Which of the following does not occurs during the formation of CHCl3 from C2H5OH and bleaching powder? (1) Oxidation (2) Reduction (3) Hydrolysis (4) Chlorination
Q.71
Which of the following structures can exist as cis-trans isomers? (1) CH3CH2CH2CH=CHCH2CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2 CH3CH2 (3) C=CH–CH3 CH3CH2
Q.72
dh vfHkfØ;k esa oy; ij vkØe.kdkjh Lih'kht gS : (1) CHCl3 (3) COCl2
fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk lei{k-foi{k leko;fo;ksa ds :i esa gksrh gS? (1) CH3CH2CH2CH=CHCH2CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2 CH3CH2 (3) C=CH–CH3 CH3CH2
Q.73
C6H 6
NH 2 NH 2
AlCl3
base , heat
(1)
CH2CH2CH3
(2)
CH–CH2–CH3 | OH
(3)
O || C–OCH2CH3
(4)
O || C–CH2CH3
Which is the major product obtained in the following reaction? CH3 OH | | H2SO4 CH3 – C – CH – CH3 Δ | CH3 (1) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 (2) (CH3)3C–CH=CH2 (3) (CH3)2C=CHCH3 (4) (CH3)2C=CHCH2CH3
fuEu vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa izkIr vfUre mRikn (III) gSNH 2 6H6 CH3CH2COOH ⎯PCl ⎯ ⎯3 → I ⎯C⎯ ⎯→ II ⎯NH ⎯2⎯ ⎯→ III
⎯→ I ⎯⎯⎯→ II ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ III CH3CH2COOH ⎯⎯
Q.74
C2H5OH rFkk fojtad pw.kZ ls CHCl3 dk fuekZ.k
(4) mijksDr lHkh
The final product (III) obtained in the reaction sequence is : PCl 3
(2) CHCl2 (4) :CCl2
djus ij D;k ugha gksrk gS? (2) vip;u (1) vkWDlhdj.k (4) Dyksjhuhdj.k (3) ty vi?kVu
(4) All the above Q.73
345 K ij CHCl3 rFkk tyh; NaOH ds lkFk fQukWy
AlCl3
Q.74
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(1)
CH2CH2CH3
(2)
CH–CH2–CH3 | OH
(3)
O || C–OCH2CH3
(4)
O || C–CH2CH3
base , heat
fuEu vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr eq[; mRikn gS CH3 OH | | H2SO4 CH3 – C – CH – CH3 Δ | CH3 (1) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 (2) (CH3)3C–CH=CH2 (3) (CH3)2C=CHCH3 (4) (CH3)2C=CHCH2CH3 15
Q.75
Arrange phenol (I), cyclohexanol (II), 2,4,6-
Q.75
trinitrophenol (III) and acetic acid (IV) in order
fQukWy (III) rFkk ,lhfVd vEy (IV) dh vEyh;rk dk lgh Øe gS &
of acidity
Q.76
(1) III > IV > I > II
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) II > I > IV > III
(1) III > IV > I > II (3) III > I > II > IV
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Q.76
(1) An SN1 reaction proceeds with inversion of configuration (2) An
SN2
reaction
proceeds
fQukWy (I), lkbDyksgsDlsukWy (II), 2,4,6-VªkbZukbVªks&
with
stereochemical inversion (3) An SN2 reaction follows second-order kinetics
(2) I > II > III > IV (4) II > I > IV > III
fuEu esa ls xyr dFku gS (1) SN1 vfHkfØ;k izrhi vfHkfoU;kl ds lkFk lEiUu gksrh gS (2) SN2 vfHkfØ;k f=kfoe jlk;u izrhiu ds lkFk lEiUu gksrh gS (3) SN2 vfHkfØ;k f}rh; dksfV xfrdh dk ikyu djrh gS
−
−
(4) The reaction of tert. butyl bromide with O H
(4) r`rh;d C;qfVy czksekbM dh
follows first-order kinetics Q.77
Q.78
Acetyl chloride does not react with : (a) ethanol
(b) ethanal
(c) diethyl ether
(d) acetone
(1) a,b
(2) b,d
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c
Which of the following compounds, on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform ? (a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3COCH3 H 3C (d) CH3OH (c) CHOH H 3C (1) a,b (3) only d
Q.79
vfHkfØ;k izFke dksfV xfrdh dk ikyu djrh gS Q.77
,lhfVy DyksjkbM fdlds lkFk fØ;k ugha djrk gS : (a) ,FksukWy (b) ,Fksusy (c) MkbZ,fFky bZFkj (d) ,lhVksu (1) a,b (3) a,c
Q.78
(2) b,d (4) a,b,c
fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd dks vk;ksMhu foy;u rFkk NaOH ds lkFk xeZ djus ij vk;ksMksQkWeZ izkIr gksxk : (a) CH3CH2OH H 3C (c) CHOH H 3C
(2) b,d (4) a,b,c
Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (1) Oxidation number of S in (NH4)2 S2O8 is + 6 (2) Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 is + 8 (3) Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is + 8 1 (4) Oxidation number of O in KO2 is – 2
O H ds lkFk
Q.79
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
(b) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3OH
(1) a,b
(2) b,d
(3) dsoy d
(4) a,b,c
fuEu eas ls dkSulk dFku lgh ugha gSA (1) (NH4)2 S2O8 esa S dh vkWDlhdj.k la[;k + 6 gksrh gSA (2) OsO4 esa Os dh vkWDlhdj.k la[;k + 8 gksrh gSA (3) H2SO5 esa S dh vkWDlhdj.k la[;k + 8 gksrh gSA (4) KO2 esa O dh vkWDlhdj.k la[;k –
1 gksrh gSA 2 16
Q.80
A 2.91 g sample of a gaseous compound that
Q.80
contains only boron and hydrogen has a volume
uewus esa dsoy 1.22 L vk;ru ds cksjksu rFkk
of 1.22 L at 25°C and 1.09 atm. What is the
gkbMªkstu mifLFkr gSA bl ;kSfxd dk lw=k gksxk -
formula of this compound?
Q.81
(AW : H = 1.01, B = 10.8 u)
(AW : H = 1.01, B = 10.8 u)
(1) B2H6
(2) B4H10
(1) B2H6
(2) B4H10
(3) B5H9
(4) B6H10
(3) B5H9
(4) B6H10
In conversion of lime-stone to lime,
Q.81
CaCO3(s) ⎯→ CaO(s) + CO2(g) The value of ΔHº and ΔSº are + 179.1 k mol
298 K rFkk 1 ckj ij ΔHº rFkk ΔSº ds eku Øe'k%
and 160.2 J/K respectively at 298 K and 1 bar.
+ 179.1 k mol–1 rFkk 160.2 J/K gSA ;g ekurs
Assuming that ΔHº and ΔSº do not change
gq, fd ΔHº rFkk ΔSº rki ds lkFk vifjofrZr jgrs
with temperature, temperature above which conversion of lime-stone to lime will be
gSaA og rki ftlds Åij ykbZe LVksu dk ykbZe esa
spontaneous is -
ifjorZu Lor% gksxk] gS -
(1) 1008 K
(2) 1200 K
(1) 1008 K
(2) 1200 K
(3) 845 K
(4) 1118 K
(3) 845 K
(4) 1118 K
Q.82
Given the equations :
uhps dqN lehdj.k nh xbZ gS :
1 P4(s) ⎯→ P(g) ; 4
ΔH° = + 74.2 kcal
1 P4(s) ⎯→ P(g) ; 4
ΔH° = + 74.2 kcal
1 H2(g) ⎯→ H(g) ; 2
ΔH° = + 52.1 kcal
1 H2(g) ⎯→ H(g) ; 2
ΔH° = + 52.1 kcal
P(g) + 3H(g) ⎯→ PH3(g) ; ΔH° = – 229.3 kcal
P(g) + 3H(g) ⎯→ PH3(g) ; ΔH° = – 229.3 kcal
Determine the overall change in enthalpy, ΔH, for
lehdj.k 4PH3(g) ⎯→ P4(s) + 6H2(g) ds fy;s ,UFkSYih esa iw.kZ ifjorZu ΔH dh x.kuk dhft;s &
4PH3(g) ⎯→ P4(s) + 6H2(g)
Q.83
ykbZe LVksu (pquk iRFkj) ds ykbZe (pquk) esa ifjorZu CaCO3(s) ⎯→ CaO(s) + CO2(g) esa
–1
Q.82
25°C rFkk 1.09 atm ij xSlh; ;kSfxd ds 2.91 g
(1) – 4.8 kcal
(2) – 2.2 kcal
(1) – 4.8 kcal
(2) – 2.2 kcal
(3) + 2.2 kcal
(4) + 12.7 kcal
(3) + 2.2 kcal
(4) + 12.7 kcal
The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different
Q.83
nks fHkUu vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy, osx fLFkjkad k1 o k2
reactions are 1018 e–3000/T and 1017 e–2000/T,
Øe'k% 1018 e–3000/T o 1017 e–2000/T gSA fdl rki ij
respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2 is:
k1 = k2 gksrk gS :
(1)
2000 K 2.303
(2) 2000 K
(1)
2000 K 2.303
(2) 2000 K
(3)
1000 K 2.303
(4) 1000 K
(3)
1000 K 2.303
(4) 1000 K
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
17
Q.84
Which of the following statements are correct?
Q.84
fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lR; gS? (a) izdk'k dh ÅtkZ] rjaxnS/;Z ds O;qRØekuqikrh gksrh
(a) The energy of light is inversely proportional
gS
to wavelength
(b) bysDVªkWu] rjax o d.k nksuks dh rjg O;ogkj
(b) Electrons behave as both waves and
djrk gS
particles
(c) ,d izk:ih ijek.kq dsoy fuf'pr izdk'k dh
(c) The typical atom can emit only certain type
ÅtkZ mRlftZr dj ldrk gSA ;fn bls mÙksftr energy if excited
fd;k tk;s (d) Infrared radiations have higher energy than
(d) vojDr fofdj.kksa dh ÅtkZ] xkek fdj.kksa ls
gama rays
Q.85
Q.86
Q.87
vf/kd gksrh gS
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (c)
(1) (a), (b) rFkk (c)
(2) (a) rFkk (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) only (d)
(3) (b) rFkk (d)
(4) dsoy (d)
What set of quantum number is NOT possible?
Q.85
Dok.Ve la[;kvksa dk dkSulk leqPp; lEHko ugha gS?
n
l
ml
ms
n
l
ml
ms
(1) 2
1
1
1 2
(1) 2
1
1
1 2
(2) 2
1
–1
1 2
(2) 2
1
–1
1 2
(3) 3
2
2
1 2
(3) 3
2
2
1 2
(4) 3
3
–3
1 2
(4) 3
3
–3
1 2
Which of the following alkenes is most reactive
Q.86
fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,Ydhu /kuk;fud cgqydhdj.k ds
towards cationic polymerisation :
izfr lokZf/kd fØ;k'khy gS :
(1) Styrene
(1) LVkbjhu
(2) Propene
(2) izksihu
(3) CH2=CH–Cl
(3) CH2=CH–Cl
(4) CH2=CH–COOCH3
(4) CH2=CH–COOCH3
Which of the following pair of molecules will have permanent dipole moment for both members? (1) NO2 and CO2 (2) NO2 and O3 (3) SiF4 and CO2 (4) SiF4 and NO2
Q.87
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
fuEu esa ls dkSulk v.kqvksa dk ;qXe nksuksa lnL;ksa ds fy, LFkk;h f}/kqzo vk?kw.kZ j[ksxk\ (1) NO2 rFkk CO2
(2) NO2 rFkk O3
(3) SiF4 rFkk CO2
(4) SiF4 rFkk NO2 18
Q.88
Which of the following factor may be regarded
Q.88
fuEu esa ls dkSulk dkjd ysUFksukbM ladqpu ds eq[;
as the main cause of lanthanoids contraction?
dkj.k ds :i esa lacaf/kr gks ldrk gS ?
(1) Poor shielding of one of the 4f-electrons by
(1) midks'k esa vU; bysDVªkWu }kjk ,d 4f-bysDVªkWu
another in the subshell
ij de ifjj{k.k
(2) Effective shielding of one of the 4f-electrons
(2) midks'kksa esa vU; bysDVªkWuksa }kjk ,d 4f-bysDVªkWu
by another in the subshell
dk izHkkoh ifjj{k.k
(3) Poorer shielding of 5d and 6s-electrons by
(3) 4f-bysDVªkWu }kjk 5d o 6s-bysDVªkWu dk U;wure
4f-electrons (4) Greater
ifjj{k.k
shielding
of
5d-electrons
by
(4) 4f-bysDVªkWu }kjk 5d-bysDVªkWu dk vf/kdre
4f-electrons
Q.89
ifjj{k.k
At temperature, T, a compound AB2(g) dissociates according to the reaction; 2AB2(g)
Q.90
Q.89
2AB(g) + B2(g)
rki
T
ij
2AB2(g)
,d
;kSfxd
AB2(g),
vfHkfØ;k;
2AB(g) + B2(g) ds vuqlkj fo;ksftr gksrk
with a degree of dissociation x, which is small
gS ftlds fo;kstu dh ek=kk x gS tks ,dkad dh rqyuk
compared with unity. The expression for Kp, in
esa NksVh gksrh gSA x rFkk dqy nkc P ds inksa esa Kp ds
terms of x and the total pressure, P is -
fy, O;tad gS -
3
(1)
Px 2
(3)
Px 3 3
2
(2)
Px 3
(4)
Px 2 2
Which of following statements is false? (1) Increase of pressure of a gas causes the amount of adsorption to increase (2) Increase of temperature may increase or decrease the amount of adsorption (3) The adsorption may be monolayer or multilayer (4) Particle size of the adsorbent does not affect the amount of adsorption
Q.90
(1)
Px 3 2
(2)
Px 2 3
(3)
Px 3 3
(4)
Px 2 2
fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS ? (1) xSl ds nkc esa o`f)] vf/k'kks"k.k dh ek=kk dks c<+k
nsrh gS (2) rki esa o`f)] vf/k'kks"k.k dh ek=kk dks c<+k ;k ?kVk
ldrh gS (3) vf/k'kks"k.k ,dryh; ;k cgqryh; gks ldrk gS (4) vf/k'kks"; ds d.k dk vkdkj vf/k'kks"k.k dh ek=kk
dks izHkkfor ugha djrk
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744‐5151200
19
BIOLOGY Q.91
Dihybrid ratio is : (1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
Q.91
Q.92
Mendel crossed plants with red and white flowers. In the F1 only red flowered plants were found. Two F1 plants were crossed and in F2 generation 2950 red & 1050 white flowered plants were obtained. It is reasonable, he conclude that : (1) Mutation had occurred (2) The genes for white flower is incompletely dominant (3) The probability of white flowered plant is 1/4 (4) No reason can be attributed
Q.92
es.My us yky rFkk 'osr iq"iksa okys ikS/kksa dk ØkWl djok;kA F1 esa dsoy yky iq"i okys ikni ik;s x,A nks F1 ikniksa dk ØkWl djk;k rFkk F2 ih<+h esa 2950 yky iq"i rFkk 1050 'osr iq"i okys ikni izkIr gq,A bldk mlus mi;qä fu"d"kZ fudkyk fd: (1) mRifjorZu gqvk (2) 'osr iq"i ds fy, thu viw.kZ :i ls izHkkoh gS (3) 'osr iq"iksa okys ikniksa dh laHkkouk 1/4 gS (4) bldk dksbZ dkj.k ugha gks ldrk
Q.93
Match the genetic phenomenon with their respective ratios : Column-I Column-II A. Duplicate gene ratio 1. 3 : 1 B. Complementary 2. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 gene ratio C. Monohybrid ratio 3. 12 : 3 : 1 D. Dihybrid test cross 4. 15 : 1 ratio E. Epistasis ratio 5. 9 : 7
Q.93
fuEu esa vkauqokf'kd ifjdYiuk ,oa lgh feyku dhft, : LrEHk-I A. f}d thuh vuqikr 1. B. laiwjd thuh vuqikr 2. C. ,dladj vuqikr 3. D. f}ladj.k ifj{kkFkZ 4. ladj vuqikr E. izcyrk 5.
f}ladj vuqikr gS : (1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
muds vuqikrksa dk LrEHk-II 3:1 1:1:1:1 12 : 3 : 1 15 : 1 9:7
(1) A = 5, B = 4, C = 3, D = 2, E = 1 (2) A = 1, B = 2, C = 4, D = 3, E = 5 (3) A = 4, B = 5, C = 1, D = 2, E = 3 (4) A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 5, E = 3
(1) A = 5, B = 4, C = 3, D = 2, E = 1 (2) A = 1, B = 2, C = 4, D = 3, E = 5 (3) A = 4, B = 5, C = 1, D = 2, E = 3 (4) A = 2, B = 1, C = 4, D = 5, E = 3 Q.94
Mother homozygous B, and father is homozygous A. What will be the possible blood group in their progeny? (1) AB and B possible (2) AB and A possible (3) AB possible (4) O possible
Q.94
;fn ekrk le;qXeth B o firk le;qXeth A gS] rks vkus okyh larafr esa jDr lewg gksxk ? (1) AB o B lEHko (2) AB o A lEHko (3) AB lEHko (4) O lEHko
Q.95
What is Trihybrid test cross ratio (1) 1:1 (2) 1:1:1:1 (3) 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Q.95
f=kladj ifj{k.k ladj.k dk vuqikr gksxk -
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
(1) 1:1 (3) 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1
(2) 1:1:1:1 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 20
Q.96
A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedure requires a vector, because vector have -
Q.96
,d DNA dk [k.M iquZ;kstu DNA dh izfØ;k esa okgd dh vko';drk gksrh gS] D;ksfa d okgd esa gksrk gS (1) iquZofrZ LFky dh mRifÙk (2) vuqys[ku LFky dh mRifÙk (3) vuqokn LFky dh mRifÙk (4) mijksä lHkh
Q.97
dkSulk oa'kkoyh ladsr lgh feyku ij gS ?
(1) Origin of replication site (2) Origin of transcription site (3) Origin of translation site (4) All the above Q.97
Which symbol of pedigree is correctly matched ? (1)
(2) (3)
5
– Female
(1)
– Affected offspring
(2)
– Affected male of autosomal recessive disease
(4)
Q.98
– Marriage between relatives
A crop scientist spliced genes for disease resistance into Ti plasmids and then treated tomato plants with the plasmids. Some parts of some plants resisted the disease, but most of the plants eventually died. The researcher could increase his chances of success by -
– izHkkfor larfr
(3)
– vksVkslksey vizHkkoh ds izHkkfor uj jksx
(4)
– lacfU/k;ksa ds e/; fookg
,d d`f"k oSKkfud Ti IykfTeM esa jksx izfrjks/ku ds fy, thu rS;kj djrk gS rFkk VekVj ds ikni dks IykfTeM ds lkFk mipkfjr djrk gSA dqN ikniksa ds dqN Hkkx jksx izfrjks/kh Fks ysfdu vf/kdka'k ikni ej x,A oSKkfud lQyrk dh laHkkouk dSls c<+k ldrk gSA (1) tgk¡ thu j[kh xbZ gS mlds cká:i esa vkf.od izksCl dk mi;ksx djA (2) ,dy dksf'kdkvksa dks mipkfjr dj mu dksf'kdkvksa las lEiw.kZ ikni dh Dyksfuax }kjk (3) thu LFkkukUrj.k ds fy, Ti IykfTeM ds LFkku ij R IykfTeM dk mi;ksx dj (4) lwbZ }kjk VekVj ikni dh dksf'kdkvksa esa thu izos'k djkdj
Q.99
tsy bysDVªksQksjsfll (oS|qr d.klapyu) dk mi;ksx fdlds fy, fd;k tkrk gS ? (1) Dyksfuax okgdksa ds lkFk tksM+ dj iqu;ksZtuh DNA dk cuk;k tkuk (2) DNA v.kq dks i`Fkd djuk (3) DNA dks [k.Mksa esa dkVuk (4) DNA [k.Mksa dks muds lkbt ds vuqlkj i`Fkd djuk
(2) Treating single cells and cloning whole plant from the cells (3) Using R plasmids rather than Ti plasmids to introduce the genes (4) Inserting the genes into the cells of a tomato plant with a needle Gel electrophoresis is used for:
5
Q.98
(1) Using molecular probes to figure out where to put genes
Q.99
– efgyk
(1) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors (2) isolation of DNA molecule (3) cutting of DNA into fragments (4) separation of DNA fragments according to their size
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
21
Q.100 What is true? (1) Flavr Savr Tomato has more ethylene for improving tasts (2) Bt in Bt cotton signifies biotechnology (3) Anticoagulant hirudin is produced by transgenic Brassica napus seeds (4) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete cells with desired genes.
Q.100 D;k lR; gS ? (1) ¶ysoj lsoj VekVj esa Lokn c<+kus ds fy,
Q.101 Match the following
Q.101 fuEu dks lwesfyr dhft,
bFkkbfyu vf/kd gksrh gSA (2) Bt dikl esa Bt tSoizkS|ksfxdh; miyfC/k gS (3) izfrLdafnr fg#fMu VªkaltSfud czsfldk usil
chtksa }kjk mRikfnr gksrk gS (4) dkf;d ladj.k esa okafNr thuksa ;qDr nks iw.kZ dksf'kdk,a lay;u esa Hkkx ysrh gSA
Column-II
Column-I
Column-II
Column-I
(1) Down's Syndrome
(i) 44 + XY
(1) Mkmu flUMªkse
(i)
44 + XY
(2) Klinefelter's Syndrome
(ii) 45 + XY
(2) DykbuQsYVj flUMªkse
(ii)
45 + XY
(3) Turner's Syndrome
(iii) 44 + XO
(3) VuZj flUMªkse
(iii) 44 + XO
(4) Phenylketonuria
(iv) 44 + XXY
(4) fQukbydhVksU;wfj;k
(iv) 44 + XXY
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A i ii i i
B iv iv ii ii
C iii iii iii iv
D i i iv iii
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A i ii i i
B iv iv ii ii
C iii iii iii iv
D i i iv iii
Q.102 Carcinoma refers to (1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue (2) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane (3) Malignant tumours of the colon (4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
Q.102 dkflZuksek ls D;k vFkZ gS : (1) la;ksth Ård ds nqnZe vcqZn (2) Ropk vFkok 'ys"ek f>Yyh ds nqnZHk vcqZn (3) c`gna=k ds nqnZe vcqZn (4) la;ksth Ård ds lqnE; vcqZn
Q.103 Which drug is usually snorted is known to suddenly increase the B.P., increase heart rate & create a false feeling of enhanced energy in the body ? (1) Ganja (2) Brown sugar (3) Charas (4) Cocaine
Q.103 fuEu esa ls fdl vkS"kf/k dks lkekU;r% ukd ds ek/;e ls lwa?kdj vUrZxzfgr fd;k tkrk gS rFkk tks B.P. dks
Q.104 ‘Sharbati Sonora’ variety of wheat is an example of (1) Transgenic plant (2) Genetically engineered variety (3) Induced mutation (4) Fungus resistant variety
Q.104 xsagq dh ^'kjcrh lksuksjk* fdLe fuEu dk mnkgj.k gS (1) ijkthuh ikni (2) vkuqokaf'kd vfHk;kaf=kdh fdLe (3) izsfjr mRifjorZu (4) dod izfrjks/kh fdLe
Q.105 In which of the following method, new plant is formed with meiosis but without fertilization(1) Apospory (2) Adventive embryony (3) Apogamy (4) None of the above
Q.105 fuEu esa ls dkSulh fof/k ea]s u;k ikni v)Zl=w kh foHkktu }kjk ijUrq fcuk fu"kspu ds curk gSa (1) vichtk.kqdrk (2) viLFkkfud Hkwz.krk (3) vi;qXedrk (4) mijksDr dksbZ ugha
mPp rFkk ân; Lianu nj dks c<+krh gS o 'kjhj esa ÅtkZ o`f) ds >wBs vglkl dks izsfjr djrh gSA (1) xkatk (2) czkmu 'kqxj (3) pjl (4) dksdhu
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22
Q.106 In angiosperms, the following events occur during megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis (a) Meiosis of the megaspore mother cell (b) Formation of a linear tetrad (c) Fusion of the polar nuclei (d) Formation of the embryosac (e) Differentiation of the megaspore mother cell (f) Degeneration of 3 megaspores (g) Mitotic division of the functional megaspore The correct sequence of events is(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g) (2) (e), (a), (b), (f), (d), (c), (g) (3) (e), (a), (b), (g), (f), (c), (d) (4) (e), (a), (b), (f), (g), (d), (c)
Q.106 vko`rchth esa xq:chtk.kq tuu o xq:;qXedtuu ds
Q.107 Callus is induced to form shoots when the culture contains(1) Auxin only (2) Cytokinin only (3) More auxin than cytokinin (4) More cytokinin than auxin
Q.107 dsSyl ls izjksg fuekZ.k izsfjr gksrk gS tc loa/kZu esa
Q.108 Which of the following is not a ecosystem service (1) Soil formation (2) Variety development in crops (3) Pollination (4) Water conservation
Q.108 fuEu esa ls dkSulh ikfjra=k lsok ugha gS -
Q.109 Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer List-I (Varieties) List-II (Crops) (A) Pusa Komal (i) Brassica (B) Pusa Gaurav (ii) Wheat (C) Pusa Sadabahar (iii) Cowpea (D) Pusa Subhra (iv) Okra (E) Parbhani Kranti (v) Chilli (F) Himgiri (vi) Cauliflower A B C D E F (1) iii i vi v iv ii (2) iii i v vi iv ii (3) iii v i vi iv ii (4) iii i v iv vi ii
Q.109 lwph-I dk lwph-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft;s -
le; fuEu ?kVuk,¡ gksrh gSa(a) xq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdkvksa esa v)Zlw=kh foHkktu (b) js[kh; prq"d dk fuekZ.k (c) /kqzoh; dsUnzdksa dk lay;u (d) Hkwz.kdks"k dk cuuk (e) xq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk dk foHksnu (f) 3 xq:chtk.kqvksa dk u"V gksuk (g) fØ;kRed xq:chtk.kq esa lelw=kh foHkktu ?kVukvksa dk lgh Øe gS – (1) (2) (3) (4)
(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g) (e), (a), (b), (f), (d), (c), (g) (e), (a), (b), (g), (f), (c), (d) (e), (a), (b), (f), (g), (d), (c)
mifLFkr gks (1) dsoy vkWfDlu (2) dsoy lkbVksdkbfuu (3) lkbVksdkbfuu ls vf/kd vkWfDlu (4) vkWfDlu ls vf/kd lkbVksdkbfuu (1) e`nk dk fuekZ.k (2) Qlyksa esa fdLe fuekZ.k (3) ijkx.k (4) ty dk laj{k.k
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
lwph-I (fdLe) (A) iwlk dksey (B) iwlk xkSjo (C) iwlk lnkcgkj (D) iqlk 'kqHkzk (E) ijHkuh Økafr (F) fgefxjh (1) (2) (3) (4)
A iii iii iii iii
B i i v i
C vi v i v
lwph-II (Qlysa) (i) czsfldk (ljlksa) (ii) xsgw¡ (iii) dkÅ-ih (iv) vksdjk (fHk.Mh) (v) fepZ (vi) QwyxksHkh D v vi vi iv
E iv iv iv vi
F ii ii ii ii 23
Q.110 In given figure showing contribution of green house gases, the A, B, C, D are – A
Q.110 fn;s x;s fp=k esa tks gfjr x`g xSlksa ds ;ksxnku dks
iznf'kZr dj jgk gS] A, B, C, D gSa – A
B
B
D
C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A CO2 CH4 N2O CFCs
B CFCs CFCs CFCs N2O
C N2O CO2 CH4 CH4
D
C
D CH4 N2O CO2 CO2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A CO2 CH4 N2O CFCs
B CFCs CFCs CFCs N2O
C N2O CO2 CH4 CH4
D CH4 N2O CO2 CO2
Q.111 Protistan considered as connecting link between plants and animals is distinguished by which one of the following animal feature ? (1) Spores formation (2) Holophytic (3) Longitudinal binary fission (4) Spermatization
Q.111 izksfVLVu dks ikniksa ,oa tUrqvksa ds e/; la;kstd
Q.112 Select the correct statements. I. From the region of elongation, some of the epidermal cells form root hairs. II. Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora. III. Adventitious roots are seen in banyan tree. IV. Maize and sugarcane have prop roots. (1) I and IV (2) I, II and IV (3) III and IV (4) II and III
Q.112 lgh dFku pqfu,&
Q.113 Main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne laterally in acropetal succession. This is a characteristic of which type of inflorescence ? (1) Cymose (2) Racemose (3) Either (1) or (2) (4) Both (1) and (2)
Q.113 eq[; v{k lrr~ o`f) djrk gS] iq"Ik vxzkfHklkjh Øe esa
dM+h ekuk tkrk gSA bUgs fuEu esa ls fdl tUrq y{k.k }kjk foHksfnr fd;k tk ldrk gS? (1) chtk.kq fuekZ.k (2) Loiks"kh (3) yEcor~ f}fo[k.Mu (4) LiesZVkbts'ku
I.
nh?khZdj.k {ks=k dh dqN vf/kpeZ dksf'kdk,¡ ewy jkse cukrh gSA II. U;qesVksQksj] jkbtksQksjk esa ns[ks tkrs gSA III. viLFkkfud ewy cjxn o`{k esa ns[kh tkrh gSA IV. eDdk o xUus esa LrEHk ewys gksrh gSA (1) I ,oa IV (2) I, II ,oa IV (3) III ,oa IV (4) II ,oa III
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
ik'oZ :Ik ls mRiUu gksrs gSA ;g fdl izdkj ds iq"iØe dk vfHky{k.k gS& (1) llhek{kh (2) vlhek{kh (3) (1) ;k (2) (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa 24
Q.114 Identify A, B and C indicated in diagram of root apex given below.
Q.114 uhps fn;s ewy 'kh"kZ ds fp=k esa funsZf'kr A, B o C dks
igpkfu,&
A
A
B
B C
C
(1) A–Vascular bundle, B–Epidermis,
(1) A–laogu iwy] B–vf/kpeZ]
C–Root apical meristem
C–ewy 'kh"kZ foHkT;ksÙkd
(2) A–Cortex, B–Epidermis,
(2) A–oYdwV] B–vf/kpeZ]
C–Root apical meristerm
C–ewy 'kh"kZ foHkT;ksÙkd
(3) A–Cortex, B–Protoderm,
(3) A–oYdwV] B–izksVksMeZ]
C–Root apical meristerm
C–ewy 'kh"kZ foHkT;ksÙkd
(4) A–Cortex, B–Stele,
(4) A–oYdwV] B–jaHk]
C–Root apical meristerm Q.115 Which one single organisms or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group ?
C–ewy 'kh"kZ foHkT;ksÙkd Q.115 dkSulk ,d tho ;k thoksa dk tksM+k ofxZdh leqg ds
ukeksa ls lgh feyku ls gS ? (1) ;hLV] ftldk mi;ksx cszM ;k fc;j cukus esa gksrk gS ,d izdkj dh dod gksrh gSA (2) ukWLVkWd ,oa ,ukfcuk] izksfVLVk ds mnkgj.k gSA (3) iSjkfef'k;e ,oa IykTeksfM;e leku txr ls lacaf/kr gS ftlls iSfuflfy;e Hkh gSA (4) ykbdsu ,d la;qDr tho gS tks fd 'kSoky ,oa izksVkstksvu ds lgthoh laca/k ls curk gSA
(1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus (2) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista (3) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium (4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan Q.116 Bryophytes comprise -
Q.116 czk;ksQkbV~l esa gksrk gS -
(1) Dominant phase of gametophyte which produces spores (2) Small sporophyte phase and generally parasitic on gametophyte (3) Sporophyte is of longer duration (4) Dominant phase of sporophyte which is parasitic
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
(1) ;qXedksn~fHkn dh izHkkoh voLFkk tks chtk.kq mRiUu
djrh gSA (2) NksVh chtk.kqnf~ Hkn voLFkk ,oa lkekU;r% ;qXedksn~fHkn ij ijthoh (3) chtk.kqn~fHkn yEch vof/k dh gksrh gSA (4) chtk.kqn~fHkn dh izHkkoh voLFkk tks fd ijthoh gksrh gSA 25
Q.117 Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term (1) Cryptogams (2) Bryophytes (3) Sporophytes (4) Thallophytes
Q.117 ikni tks fd chtk.kq }kjk mRiUu gksrs gS] tSls ekWlt s ,oa
Q.118 Examine the figure A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items A, B, C and D are correct ?
Q.118 fp=k A, B, C ,oa D dk fufj{k.k dhft,A pkjksa
Options : A (1) (2) (3) (4)
A
B
C
D
QuZ dks lkekU;r% fdl leqg esa j[kk x;k gS (2) czk;ksQkbV~l (1) fØIVksxsEl (4) FkSyksQkbV (3) LiksjksQkbV
fodYiksa esa ls fdlesa pkjksa A, B, C ,oa D lgh gS ?
A
B
C
D
fodYi : A
B
C
D
(1)
dkjk
ekdsZfU'k;k
¶;qdl
Ikkbul
(2)
bfDoflVe
fxaxks
flysftusyk
Ykk;dksiksfM;e
Ginkgo
(3)
flysftusyk
bfDoflVe
lkfYofu;k
fxaxks
Riccia
(4)
¶;qusfj;k
,fM,UVe
lkfYofu;k
fjfDl;k
B
C
D
Chara
Marchantia
Fucus
Pinus
Equisetum
Ginkgo
Selaginella
Lycopodium
Seleginella
Equisetum
Salvinia
Funaria
Adiantum
Salvinia
Q.119 Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is (1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Water absorption (3) Photolysis of water (4) Calvin cycle
Q.119 gjs ikniksa esa eSfXut dk lqLi"V dk;Z gksrk gS -
Q.120 Glycolysis (1) Takes place in the mitochondria (2) Produces no ATP (3) Has no connection with electron transport chain (4) Reduces two molecules of NAD+ for every glucose molecule processed
Q.120 Xyk;dksyk;fll -
(1) ukbVªkstu fLFkfjdj.k (2) ty dk vo'kks"k.k (3) ty dk izdk'k vi?kVu (4) dsfYou pØ
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
(1) ekbVksdkWfUMª;k esa gksrk gS (2) dksbZ ATP mRiUu ugha djrk (3) bysDVªkWu ifjogu J`a[kyk ds lkFk dksbZ laca/k ugha
gksrkA (4) izR;sd Xyqdkst v.kq vkWDlhd`r djus ds fy;s nks NAD+ v.kq dks vipf;r djrh gSA 26
Q.121 Among the nitrogenous bases involved in DNA and RNA formation, the double ring base is (1) Uracil (2) Guanine (3) Thymine (4) Cytosine
Q.121 DNA ,oa RNA fuekZ.k esa lfEefyr ukbVªkstue;
Q.122 Sun light is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on earth except deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem. What is the source of energy in such ecosystems ? (1) Organic compound (2) Inorganic compound (3) Water currents (4) Warm vents
Q.122 i`Foh ij dsoy lw;Z dk izdk'k gh ,dek=k ÅtkZ dk
Q.123 Nagative geotropism is commonly found in (1) Orchid root (2) Ficus root (3) Rhizophora root (4) Trapa root
Q.123 _.kkRed xq:RokuqorhZ;rk lkekU;r;k ikbZ tkrh gS -
Q.124 Match the list-I with list-II and select correct answer
Q.124 lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk feyku djks rFkk lgh mÙkj
List-I
List-II
(A) Monarch butter fly and Birds
(i) + | +
(B) Goat and grass
(ii) + | –
(C) Ticks and Dogs
(iii) + | 0
(D) Barnacles on whale
(iv) – | –
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A II II II II
B III IV II III
C I II II II
{kkjksa esa ls f}oy; {kkj gS & (1) ;qjsfly (2) xq,fuu (4) lk;Vkslhu (3) Fkk;feu
L=kksr gS] xgjs leqnzh tyrkih; ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k dks NksM+djA bl izdkj ds ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k esa ÅtkZ dk L=kksr D;k gS ? (2) vdkcZfud ;kSfxd (1) dkcZfud ;kSfxd (4) xeZ /kkjk,a (3) ty /kkjk,a
(1) vkfdZM ewy esa
(2) Qkbdl ewy esa
(3) jkbtksQksjk ewy esa
(4) Vªkik ewy esa
dk pquko djks lwph-I (A) eksukdZ frryh rFkk i{kh (B) cdjh rFkk ?kkl (C) fpaPkMh rFkk dqÙkk (D) Ogsy ij ckusZdYl
D IV III III I
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A II II II II
B III IV II III
C I II II II
lwph-II (i) + | + (ii) + | – (iii) + | 0 (iv) – | – D IV III III I
Q.125 Which of the following is not a part of dicot embryo ? (1) Plumule (2) Hypocotyl (3) Coleoptile (4) Redicel
Q.125 fuEu esa ls dkSulk Hkkx f}chti=kh Hkzw.k dk ugha gSa ?
Q.126 Green stems of unlimited growth, which have taken over the function of photosynthesis is called (1) Phylloclades (2) Tendrils (3) Modified shoot (4) Inflorescence
Q.126 vlhfer o`f) okyk gjk LrEHk tks fd izdk'k la'ys"k.k
(1) izkadqj (2) chti=kk/kkj (3) izkadqjpksy (4) ewykadqj
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
dk dk;Z djrk gS] dgykrk gSA (1) i.kkZHkLrEHk (2) izrku (3) :ikUrfjr LrEHk (4) Ikq"iØe
27
Q.127 Which of the following statements are true ?
I.
Q.127 fuEu esa ls dkSuls dFku lR; gS \
The stem is with solid nodes and hollow internodes, is called caudex.
I.
Bksl ioZ laf/k o [kks[kys ioZ okys LrEHk dks dksMsDl dgrs gSA II. ?kudan] m/oZ fn'kk esa de ;k vf/kd o`f) djrs gq, izdan dk l?ku :Ik gksrk gSA III. vUr% HkwLrkjh rus dk Hkwfexr :ikUrj.k gSA IV. f}'kk[kh izdkj dk lehek{kh iq"iØe ljkdk es ns[kk tkrk gSA (1) I ,oa IV (2) dsoy II (3) II ,oa III (4) III ,oa IV
II. Corm is a condensed form of rhizome growing more or less in vertical direction. III. Sucker is an underground modification of stem. IV. Biparous type of cymose is seen in Saraca. (1) I and IV (2) II Only (3) II and III (4) III and IV Q.128 'Exarch' is the condition of Primary xylem in which
Q.128 izkFkfed tkbye dh ckávkfnnk:d voLFkk esa &
(1) izksVkstk;ye ckgj dh vksj ,oa esVktk;ye vanj
(1) Protoxylem lies toward the outside and metaxylem lies inward
dh vksj gksrk gSA (2) esVktk;ye ckgj dh vksj ,oa izksVkstk;ye vanj dh vksj gksrk gSA (3) esVktk;ye ik'oZ dh vksj ,oa izksVkstk;ye vanj dh vksj gksrk gSA (4) izksVkstk;ye ik'oZ dh vksj ,oa esVktk;ye vanj dh vksj gksrk gSA
(2) Metaxylem lies toward the outside and protoxylem lies inward (3) Metaxylem lies toward the lateral side and protoxylem lies inward (4) Protoxylem lies toward the lateral side and metaxylem lies inward
Q.129 fuEu LrEHkksa dk feyku dhft,&
Q.129 Match the following columns.
Column I
Column II
(Types of phyllotaxy)
(Name)
A. Single leaf arises at each node.
1. Whorled phyllotaxy
B. Pair of leaf arises at nodes
2. Opposite phyllotaxy
C. More than two leaves arises at each nodes
3. Alternate phyllotaxy
Codes
A
B
C
(1)
3
2
1
(2)
3
1
2
(3)
1
2
3
(4)
1
3
2
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
LrEHk I LrEHk II (i.kZfoU;kl dk izdkj) (uke) A. izR;sd ioZlfa /k ij ,d 1. pfØ; i.kZfoU;kl i.kZ mRiUu gksrh gSA B. i.kZ dk ;qXe ,d 2. lEeq[k i.kZfoU;kl ioZlfU/k ij mRiUu gksrk gSA C. izR;sd ioZlfU/k ij nks 3. ,dkUrfjr i.kZfoU;kl ls vf/kd i.kZ mRiUu gksrh gSA dksM A B C (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 1 1
2 1 2 3
1 2 3 2
28
Q.130 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options in all the four parts A, B, C and D are correct ?
Q.130 uhps fn;k x;k fp=k thok.kqHkksth dk gSA fuEu es ls
fdlh fodYi esa lHkh pkjks Hkkx A, B, C rFkk D lgh gS ?
A
A
C B
C B
D
D
Options : A (1) Tail fibres (2) Sheath
B Head
C Sheath
D Collar
Collar
Head
(3)
Head
Sheath
Collar
(4)
Collar
Tail fibres
Head
Tail fibres Tail fibres Sheath
fodYi :
Q.131 Which one is not a character of green algae ? (1) Presence of pyrenoid (2) Photosynthetic pigments, chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-b and carotenoids (3) Lateral orientation of flagella (4) Isokont flagellation Q.132 The primary acceptor, during CO2 fixation in C3 plants, is (1) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) (2) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuDP) (3) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) (4) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP) Q.133 In which part of C4 leaf, oxygen evolution occur ? (1) In stroma of mesophyll chloroplast (2) In thylakoid lumen of mesophyll chloroplast (3) In stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast (4) In thylakoid lumen of bundle sheath chloroplast
A
B
C
D
(2)
iw¡N rarq vkoj.k
'kh"kZ dkWyj
vkoj.k 'kh"kZ
(3)
'kh"kZ
vkoj.k
dkWyj
(4)
dkWyj
iw¡N rarq
'kh"kZ
dkWyj iw¡N rarq iw¡N rarq vkoj.k
(1)
Q.131 fuEu esa ls dkSulk gjs 'kSoky dk y{k.k ugha gS ?
(1) ik;jsukWbM dh mifLFkfr (2) izdk'kla'ys"kh o.kZd] DyksjksfQy-a, DyksjksfQy-b
,oa dsjksfVukW;M (3) d'kkHk dk Ikk'oZ foU;kl (4) vkblksdkWUV d'kkHkfoU;kl Q.132 C3 ikniks esa CO2 fLFkfjdj.k ds nkSjku izkFkfed xzkgh gS (1) QkWLQksbuksyik;:osV (PEP) (2) jkbcqykst 1, 5-MkbZQkWLQsV (RuDP) (3) QkWLQksfXylfjd vEy (PGA) (4) jkbcqykst eksuksQkWLQsV (RMP) Q.133 C4 i.kZ ds dkSuls Hkkx esa vkWDlhtu eqDr gksrh gS ?
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(1) i.kZe/;ksÙkd gfjryod ds LVªksek es (2) i.kZe/;ksÙkd gfjryod ds Fkk;ysdkWbM vodk'k es (3) iwykPNn gfjryod ds LVªksek esa (4) iwykPNn gfjryod ds Fkk;ysdkWbM vodk'k esa
29
Q.134 Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ? (1) Ribosome (2) Peroxisome (3) ER (4) Mesosome
Q.134 fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk dksf'kdkax esa dksf'kdkax gS ? (2) ijkWDlhlkse (1) jkbckslkse (3) ER (4) felkslkse
Q.135 Vacuole in a plant cell (1) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances (2) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids (3) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances (4) Lacks membrane and contains air
Q.135 ikni dksf'kdk esa fjfDrdk (1) blesa f>Yyh dk vHkko gksrk gS ,oa bles ty ,oa
Q.136 In prokaryotes, the genetic material is (1) Linear DNA without histones (2) Circular DNA without histones (3) Linear DNA with histones (4) Circular DNA with histones
Q.136 izksdsfj;ksV~l (1) fgLVksu (2) fgLVksu (3) fgLVksu (4) fgLVksu
Q.137 Identify the components labeled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given along with –
Q.137 uhps fn;s fp=k esa ls ukekafdr vo;o A, B, C rFkk D dks uhps nh xbZ lwph (i) ls (viii) igpkfu, –
mRlthZ inkFkZ gksrs gS (2) f>Yyhc) gksrh gS ,oa laxzg izksVhu o fyfiM
j[krh gS (3) f>Yyhc) gksrh gS ,oa bles ty o mRlthZ inkFkZ gksrs gS (4) f>Yyh dk vHkko gksrk gS ,oa bles ok;q gksrh gS es vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gksrk gS jfgr js[kh; DNA jfgr orqZy DNA lfgr js[kh; DNA lfgr orqZy DNA
C A
C A
D B
D B
Components : i. Cristae of mitochondria ii. Inner membrane of mitochondria iii. Cytoplasm iv. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum v. Rough endoplasmic reticulum vi. Mitochondria matrix vii. Cell vacuole viii. Nucleus The correct components are : A B C D (1) v iv viii iii (2) i iv viii vi (3) vi v iv vii (4) v i iii ii CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
vo;o : i. ekbVksdkWfUMª;k dh fØLVh ii. ekbVksdkWfUMª;k dh vkUrfjd f>Yyh iii. dksf'kdknzO; iv. fpduh vUr%iznzO;h tkfydk v. [kqjnjh vUr%iznzO;h tkfydk vi. ekbVksdkWfUMª;k v/kk=kh vii. dksf'kdk/kkuh viii. dsUnzd lgh vo;o gS : (1) (2) (3) (4)
A v i vi v
B iv iv v i
C viii viii iv iii
D iii vi vii ii 30
Q.138 In ferns, meiosis takes place at the time of (1) Spore formation (2) Spore germination (3) Gamete formation (4) Antheridia and archegonia formation
Q.138 QuZ esa] v/kZlw=k.k fdl le; gksrk gS -
(1) chtk.kq fuekZ.k (2) chtk.kq vadqj.k (3) ;qXed fuekZ.k (4) iq/kkuh ,oa L=kh/kkuh fuekZ.k
Q.139 Which phase of interphase is the most important point in regulation of the cell cycle, during which it must decide whether the cell will start a new cycle or will enter in G0 phase ? (2) S phase (1) G1 phase (3) G2 phase (4) Quiescent stage
fu;eu es eq[; fcUnq gS ftlds nkSjku ;g fu/kkZfjr djrh gS dksf'kdk u;k pØ vkjEHk djs ;k G0 voLFkk esa izos'k djs ? (1) G1 voLFkk (2) S voLFkk (4) 'kkar voLFkk (3) G2 voLFkk Q.140 uhps fn;k x;k oØ rhu ifjfLFkfr;ks (pH, rkieku ,oa fØ;k/kkj lkanzrk) esa ,Utkbeh lfØ;rk dks n'kkZrk gS & y-axis
y-axis
Q.140 The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration)
Q.139 vUrjkoLFkk dh dkSulh voLFkk dksf'kdk pØ ds
x-axis What do the two axis (x and y) represent ? x-axis y-axis (1) Enzymatic activity Temperature (2) Enzymatic activity pH (3) Temperature Enzyme activity (4) Substrate Enzyme activity concentration
x-axis
nksuks v{k (x rFkk y) D;k iznf'kZr djrs gS ? x-v{k y-v{k rkieku (1) ,Utkbeh lfØ;rk pH (2) ,Utkbeh lfØ;rk ,Utkbe lfØ;rk (3) rkieku (4) fØ;k/kkj lkanzrk ,Utkbe lfØ;rk
Q.141 Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by (1) Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells (2) Fungi, algae and green plant cells (3) All bacteria, fungi and algae (4) Viruses, fungi and bacteria
Q.141 dkcksZgkbMªsV tks fd i`Foh ij lcls cgqY; tSo v.kq gS] mRiUu gksrk gS (1) dqN thok.kq] 'kSoky ,oa gjh ikni dksf'kdkvksa ls (2) dod] 'kSoky ,oa gjh ikni dksf'kdkvks ls (3) lHkh thok.kq] dod ,oa 'kSoky ls (4) fo"kk.kq] dod ,oa thok.kq ls
Q.142 Key stone species of community (A) Regulate species diversity of community (B) Regulates relative abundance of species in community (C) Connects the two individuals of different species (D) Are always predators Correct characteristics are (1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B (3) C, D (4) A, B, D
Q.142 leqnk; dh dqath'khyk (Key stone) iztkfr
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
(A) leqnk; dh iztkfr fofo/krk dk fu;eu djrh gS (B) leqnk; eas iztkfr;ksa dh lkisf{kd ckgqY;rk dk
fu;eu djrh gSA (C) nks fHkUu iztkfr;ksa dh O;f"B;ksa dks tksM+rh gS (D) ;s ges'kk ijHk{kh gksrh gSa lgh y{k.k gS (1) A, B, C, D (3) C, D
(2) A, B (4) A, B, D 31
Q.143 Net community productivity of oceans is mainly limited by :
Q.143 egklkxj dh 'kq) lkeqnkf;d mRikndrk eq[; :Ik
ls fdlds }kjk fu;fer gksrh gS (1) rkieku rFkk o"kkZ (2) iks"kd rFkk rkieku (3) izdk'k rFk iks"kd (4) izdk'k rFkk CO2
(1) Temperature and Rainfall (2) Nutrients and Temperature (3) Light and Nutrients (4) Light and CO2 Q.144 The most suitable pyramid of the biomass in forest ecosystem is
Q.144 ou ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k esa tSoHkkj dk lokZf/kd mi;qDr
Lrwi gSa
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
Q.145 Bad ozone is present in -
Q.145 cqjh vkstksu ikbZ tkrh gS -
(1) Stratosphere
(1) lerkie.My
(2) Troposphere
(2) {kksHke.My
(3) Mesosphere
(3) e/;e.My
(4) Thermosphere
(4) rkie.My
Q.146 Identify the plant, in which vegetative propagation is possible by using tuber with a node.
Q.146 ikni dks igpkfu,] ftlesa dkf;d izo/kZu ioZlfU/k
(1) Allium (2) Solanum (3) Zingiber (4) Brassica CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
;qDr dan }kjk lEHko gksrk gS & (1) ,fy;e (2) lksysue (3) ftaftcj (4) czsfldk 32
Q.147 Consider the following statements and choose the correct option. I. The thread-like cytoplasmic strands, running from one cell to other is known as plasmodesmata. II. Xylem and phloem constitute the vascular bundle of the stem. III. The first formed xylem elements are described as metaxylem. IV. Radial vascular bundles are mainly found in the leaves. (1) I is true, but II, III and IV are worng (2) II is true, but I, III and IV are wrong (3) III is true, but I, II and IV are wrong (4) I and II are true, but III and IV are wrong
Q.147 fuEu dFkuksa ij /;ku nhft, ,oa lgh fodYi pqfu,&
Q.148 Which of the following statements about lipids is false ? (1) A wax is a lipid (2) Unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature (3) The body doesn't need any cholesterol. (4) Both male and female sex hormones are steroids.
Q.148 fyfiM ds lacU/k esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS ?
Q.149 Conifers differ from grasses in the (1) Formation of endosperm before fertilization (2) Production of seeds from ovules (3) lack of xylem tracheids (4) Absence of pollen tubes
Q.149 dksfuQlZ] ?kklksa ls fHkUu gksrs gS -
Q.150 The meristerm responsible for extra-stelar secondary growth in dicot stem is (1) Intercalary meristem (2) Interfascicular meristem (3) Intercalary cambium (4) Phellogen
Q.150 f}chti=kh rus esa cká jEHkh; f}rh;d o`f} ds fy,
Q.151 The end products of fermentation are (1) O2 and C2H5OH (2) CO2 and acetaldehyde (3) CO2 and O2 (4) CO2 and C2H5OH
Q.151 fd.ou dk vfUre mRikn gS -
I.
rUrq leku dksf'kdknzO;h jTtq tks ,d dksf'kdk ls vU; dksf'kdk es tkrk gS IykTeksMsLesVk dgykrk gSA II. tk;ye ,oa Q~yks,e rus ds laogu iwy cukrs gSA III. izFke fufeZr tk;ye rRo esVktk;ye dgykrs gSA IV. vjh; laogu iwy eq[;r% i.kZ es ik, tkrs gSA (1) I lR; gS] fdUrq II, III ,oa IV xyr gS (2) II lR; gS] fdUrq I, III ,oa IV xyr gS (3) III lR; gS] fdUrq I, II ,oa IV xyr gS (4) I RkFkk II lR; gS] fdUrq III ,oa IV xyr gS
(1) ekse ,d fyfiM gSA (2) vlar`Ir olk] dejs ds rki ij nzo voLFkk esa
gksrs gSA (3) 'kjhj dks fdlh izdkj ds dksyLs Vªky s dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gSA (4) uj rFkk eknk fyax gkeksu Z nksuksa LVhjksbM gksrs gSA
(1) fu"kspu ds iwoZ Hkzw.kiks"k fuekZ.k ds fy;sA (2) chtk.M ls cht ds mRiknu esa (3) tk;ye okfgfudk ds vHkko esa (4) ijkx uyh dh vuqifLFkfr esa
mÙkjnk;h foHkT;ksÙkd gS& (1) vUrZos'kh foHkT;ksÙkd (2) vUrjiwfy; foHkT;ksÙkd (3) vUrZos'kh ,/kk (4) dkxtu
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
(1) O2 ,oa C2H5OH (2) CO2 ,oa ,flVsfYMgkbM (3) CO2 ,oa O2 (4) CO2 ,oa C2H5OH 33
Q.152 What is antisence technology ? (1) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens (2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue cultures (3) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific gene (4) RNA polymerase producing DNA
Q.152 ^,aVhlsal* rduhd D;k gS ?
Q.153 Pomato and bromato are produced by (1) Cybridization (2) Conventional hybridization (3) Somatic hybridization (4) Gene transfer
Q.153 iksesVks ,oa czksesVks fdlls mRikfnr fd;s x;s gS -
Q.154 Which of following absorbs their food directly from body surface (1) Taenia (2) Cockroach (3) Ascaris (4) All of above
Q.154 fuEu eas ls dkSu vius Hkkstu dks lh/ks 'kjhj lrg ls
Q.155 In male cockroach genital chamber bounded dorsally by (1) 9th & 10th sterna (2) 8th & 9th sterna (3) 9th & 10th turga (4) 8th & 9th turga
Q.155 uj frypV~Vs esa tufud d{k i`"Bh; :i ls f?kjs gksrs
Q.156 NaCl returned to the interstitium by –
Q.156 NaCl bUVjLVhf'k;e ¼vUrjkyh vodk'k½ esa iqu% ykSV tkrk gS -
A
(1) ,d dksf'kdk] cká ,aVhtu dks iznf'kZr djrh gS
tks ,aVhtu ds la'ys"k.k esa iz;qDr gksrh gSA (2) Ård lao/kZu esa lksekDyksuy :ikarj dk mRiknu (3) tc RNA dk ,d [k.M tks Øe esa iwjd gksrk gS ,d fof'k"V thu dh vfHkO;fDr dks can dj nsrk gSA (4) RNA iksyhejst DNA mRiUu djrk gSA
(1) lkbczhMkbts'ku (2) ijEijkxr ladj.k (3) dkf;d ladj.k (4) thu LFkkukUrj.k
vo'kksf"kr djrk gS (1) Vhfu;k (3) ,Ldsfjl
(4) mijksDr lHkh
gS osa
osa
osa
osa
(1) 9 rFkk 10 v/kjd }kjk (2) 8 rFkk 9 v/kjd }kjk osa
osa
(3) 9 rFkk 10 i`"Bd }kjk osa
osa
(4) 8 rFkk 9 i`"Bd }kjk
B C
D
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(2) dkWdjksp
Ascending part of 'A' part of given diagram Descending part of 'A' part of given diagram Descending part of 'D' part of given diagram Ascending part of 'D' part of given diagram
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
A
B C
D
(1) fn;s x, fp=k ds 'A' Hkkx ds vkjksgh Hkkx esa (2) fn;s x, fp=k ds 'A' Hkkx ds vojksgh Hkkx esa (3) fn;s x, fp=k ds 'D' Hkkx ds vojksgh Hkkx esa (4) fn;s x, fp=k ds 'D' Hkkx ds vkjksgh Hkkx esa 34
Q.157 Increase in ….(i)….. leads to binding of ….(ii)…. with a subunit of …..(iii)….. on ….(iv)…. – (a) Na+ level (b) Sodium ++ (c) Ca level (d) Calcium (e) Troponine (f) Tropomyosine (g) Actin (h) Myosine (1) i-(c); ii-(b); iii-(f); iv-(h) (2) i-(c); ii-(d); iii-(e); iv-(g) (3) i-(a); ii-(d); iii-(g); iv-(h) (4) i-(c); ii-(b); iii-(e); iv-(g)
Q.157
Q.158 During generation of action potential (1) Na+ moves rapidly outward (2) Na+ moves rapidly inward (3) Na+ moves slowely inward (4) Na+ moves slowely outward
Q.158 fØ;k foHko mRiUu gksus ds nkSjku -
Q.159 Match the column correctly – Column-I Column-II A Stepes i Fovea Oval B Rods ii window Scotopic C Macula lutea iii vision D Crista iv Ampulla (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
Q.159 LrEHkksa dk lgh feyku fdft, –
Q.160 Defective development & maturation of growing baby leading to stunded growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient etc caused by (1) Hypothyroidism (2) Hyperthyroidism (3) Hypoparathyroidism (4) Hyperparathyroidism
Q.160 fodkl'khy uotkr esa fod`r ifjo/kZu ,oa ifjiDou ls
Q.161 Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible respiration is (1) ERV (2) IRV (3) RV (4) IV
Q.161 ok;q dk vfrfjDr vk;ru tks ,d O;fDr }kjk cy
….(i)….. esa c<+ksÙkjh ….(ii)…. dks] …..(iii)….. dh mibdkbZ ls ….(iv)…. ij cka/krk gS – (a) Na+ Lrj (c) Ca
(b) lksfM;e
++
(d) dSfY'k;e
Lrj (e) Vªksiksfuu (g) ,fDVu
(f) Vªksiksek;kslhu
(h) ek;ksflu (1) i-(c); ii-(b); iii-(f); iv-(h) (2) i-(c); ii-(d); iii-(e); iv-(g) (3) i-(a); ii-(d); iii-(g); iv-(h) (4) i-(c); ii-(b); iii-(e); iv-(g)
(1) Na+ rhozrk ls ckgj dh vksj xfr djrs gSA (2) Na+ rhozrk ls vUnj dh vksj xfr djrs gSA (3) Na+ /khjs ls vUnj dh vksj xfr djrs gSA (4) Na+ /khjs ls ckgj dh vksj xfr djrs gSA
LrEHk-I A LVsiht (Stepes) i B 'ykdk (Rods) ii
LrEHk-II Qksfo;k (Fovea) vksoy foUMks (Oval window)
C
esD;qyk Y;qfV;k
iii
LdksVksfid n`f"V
iv
(Scotopic vision) ,Eiqyk (Ampulla)
(Macula lutea) D
fØLVk (Crista)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
vo:) o`f)] ekufld fodkj] de ckSf/kdrk vkfn gksrk gS] ftldk dkj.k gS (1) FkkW;jkbM dk vYiL=kko.k (2) FkkW;jkbM dk vfrL=kko.k (3) iSjkFkkW;jkbM dk vYiL=kko.k (4) iSjkFkkW;jkbM dk vfrL=kko.k
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
iwoZd vUr%'oflr fd;k tkrk gS (1) ERV (3) RV
(2) IRV (4) IV 35
Q.162 Absorption of fructose & amino acid is (1) Active (2) Passive (3) Facilitated (4) Any of above
Q.162 ÝDVkst ,oa vehuks vEy dk vo'kks"k.k gksrk gS -
Q.163 Which option is correctly matched : a – Pashmina (i) Cow b – Kathiawari (ii) Wool c – Jersey (iii) Horse d – Malabari (iv) Goat (1) a – (i), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (ii) (2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (iv) (3) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i), d – (iv) (4) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
Q.163 dkSulk fodYi lgh tksM+ks okyk gS :
Q.164 Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution ? (1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection (2) Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection (3) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection (4) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
Q.164 fuEu esa ls dkSulk Øe MkfoZu ,oa osysl }kjk
Q.165 Spleen is referred to as (1) Temporary endocrine gland (2) Grave yard of RBC (3) Largest gland (4) Store house of WBC
Q.165 Iyhgk tkuh tkrh gS
Q.166 What happens when the pacemaker is non functional ? (1) Only the auricles will contract rhythmically (2) The cardiac muscles do not contract in a coordinated manner rhythmically (3) Only ventricles will contract rhythmically (4) Cardiac muscle will contract in a coordinated manner rhythmically
Q.166 D;k gksxk ;fn islesdj vfØ;k'khy gks tk,
(1) lfØ; (Active) (2) fuf"Ø; (Passive) (3) lqxe (Facilitated) (4) mijksDr dksbZ Hkh (Any of above)
a – i'ehuk
(i) xk;
b – dkBh;kokM+h
(ii) Åu
c – tlhZ
(iii) ?kksM+k
(iv) cdjh d – ekykckjh (1) a – (i), b – (iii), c – (iv), (2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i), (3) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i), (4) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii),
d – (ii) d – (iv) d – (iv) d – (iv)
dkcZfud mn~fodkl ds fy;s izLrkfor fd;k x;k Fkk ? (1) vfrmRiknu] fofo/krk] lef"B vkdkj esa fu;ferrk] izkd`frd p;u (2) fofo/krk] lef"B vkdkj esa fu;ferrk] vfrmRiknu] izkd`frd p;u (3) vfrmRiknu] lef"B vkdkj esa fu;ferrk] fofo/krk] izkd`frd p;u (4) fofo/krk] izkd`frd p;u] vfrmRiknu] lef"B vkdkj esa fu;ferrk (1) vLFkk;h vUr%L=kkoh xzafFk ds (2) RBC dk dfczLrku (3) lcls yEch xzafFk (4) WBC dk laxzg x`g
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
(1) dsoy vkfyUn fjnae :i ls ladqfpr gksxk (2) ân;h isf'k;ka fuf'pr vuqØe esa fjnae :i ls
ladqfpr ugha gksxh (3) dsoy fuy; fjne :i ls ladqfpr gksxk (4) ân;h isf'k;ka fuf'pr vuqØe esa fjnae :i ls ladqfpr gksxh
36
Q.167 All the functions are performed by kidney except – (1) Regulation of B.P. (2) Regulation of body fluid pH (3) Secretion of antibodies (4) Removal of nitrogenous wastes
Q.167 fuEu esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh dk;Z o`Dd }kjk fd;s
Q.168 Most terrestrial insects get rid of bulk of their nirogenous wastes as – (1) Amino acids (2) urea (3) Uric acid (4) ammonia
Q.168 vf/kdka'k LFkfy; dhV viuk ukbVªkt s uh vif'k"V fdl
Q.169 Snakes and lizards shed their scales as (1) Skin cast (2) Cuticular cast (3) Hair cast (4) Scutes
Q.169 lk¡Ik ,oa fNidyh vius 'kYd NksMr + s gS -
Q.170 Which of following structure give in diagram is associated with allergic condition –
Q.170 fn;s x, fp=k esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk ,ythZ fLFkfr
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
tkrs gSa – (1) B.P. dk fu;eu (2) jDr nzo pH dk fu;eu (3) izfrdk; dk L=ko.k
s uh vif'k"V dk fu"dklu (4) ukbVªkt :i esa R;kxrs gSa – (1) vehuks vEy (3) ;wfjd vEy
(2) ;wfj;k (4) veksfu;k
w (cast) ds :Ik esa (1) dspy (2) D;qfVdqyj dh mÙkju (cast) ds :Ik esa (3) jkse dh mrju (cast) ds :Ik esa (4) LD;qVh ds :Ik esa
ls lacfa /kr gS –
(4) D
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Q.171 Which of the following stages are found in ovary of female human child at the time of birth (1) Oocyte & Ovum (2) Oogonia & Spermatogonia (3) Oogonia & secondary oocyte (4) Primary oocyte
Q.171 tUe ds le; euq"; ds eknk cPps ds v.Mk'k; esa
Q.172 Which of the following directly come under natural selection process (1) Industrial melanism (2) Intensive breeding programme (3) Darwin's finches (4) Divergent evolution of placental mammals in Australia
Q.172 fuEu esa ls dkSulk izkd`frd p;u dh izfØ;k ds
dkSulh voLFkk,sa ikbZ tkrh gS (1) ÅlkbV o v.Mk.kq (2) Åxksfu;k vkSj LieZsVksxksfu;k (3) Åxksfu;k vkSj f}rh;d ÅlkbV (4) izkFkfed ÅlkbV
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
vUrZxr lh/ks rkSj ij vkrk gS (1) vkS/kksfxd d`".krk (2) izHkko'kkyh iztuu dk;ZØe (3) MkfoZu fQUpsl (4) vkLVªsfy;k esa vijk Lrfu;ksa dk vfHklkjh mn~fodkl 37
Q.173 Select the correct statement(s)
Q.173 lgh dFkuksa dk p;u dhft,
A. Microbial experiment show the pre-existing advantageous mutations when selected will result in the observation of new phenotypes.
A. lq{etSfod iz;ksx] iwoZorhZ ykHknk;d mÙkifjorZu
B. Over few generation this would result in speciation.
B.
C. In 1938, a fish cought in South Africa happened to be a coelacanth (lobe fins) which was thought to be extinct. These animals evolved into the first amphibian living on both land and water.
C.
D.
D. Lichens can be used as pollution indicators. E. Alfred Wallace, A naturalist, who worked in Malay Archepelago (present Indonesia) has also come to similar conclusion on natural selection as reached by Darwinism
E.
(1) A and B only
(1)
(2) A, B, C, D and E
(2)
(3) A and D only
(3)
(4) D and E only
(4)
Q.174 Match the ARTs with their description –
n'kkZrs gS tc ;g uohu y{k.kizk:ih izs{k.k ds ifj.kke Lo:Ik p;fur gq;s gksxsA dqN lUrfr;ksa ij ;g tkfr mn~Hkou ds ifj.kkeLo:i gksxkA 1938 esa ,d eNyh nf{k.kh vÝhdk esa idM+h xbZ ;g flyksdsUFk Fkh] tks foyqIr ekuh tkrh Fkh ;s tUrq] LFky o ty esa jgus okys izFke mHk;pj esa mn~fodflr gq;sA ykbdsu iznw"k.k lwpd dh rjg mi;ksx fd;s tk ldrs gS vYÝsM osysd ,d izd`fr oSKkfud ftUgksus ey; vkdsZisysxks (vkt dk b.Mksusf'k;k) esa dk;Z fd;k Fkk blus Hkh izkd`frd p;u ij leku fu"d"kZ fudkys ftu ij MkfoZu igq¡pk Fkk dsoy A o B A, B, C, D o E dsoy A o D dsoy D o E
Q.174 ART dk muds o.kZu ds lkFk feyku dhft, –
I. Collected gametes are made to form the zygote in the laboratory II. Zygote with pronuclear stage is transferred into the oviduct III. Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus.
I.
,df=kr ;qXed ç;ksx'kkyk esa ;qXeut cukrs gS
II. izkd~dsUnzd voLFkk esa ;qXeut v.Mokfguh esa
LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS III. 8 CykLVksa eh;j ls vf/kd dk Hkzw.k xHkkZ'k; esa
LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS
IV. Fusion of gametes within the female.
IV. L=kh esa ;qXedksa dk lay;u gksrk gS
V. Transfer of gametes to the oviduct of the recipient
V. ;qXedksa dk LFkkukUrj.k xzkgh dh v.Mokfguh esa gksrk
VI. Sperm is injected into the ovum in-vitro
VI. 'kqØk.kq bufoVªks v.Mk.kq esa vUrZosf'kr fd;k tkrk gS
A. GIFT
B. ZIFT
C. Al
D. ICSI
E. IUT
F. IVF
A. GIFT C. Al E. IUT
B. ZIFT D. ICSI F. IVF
G. IUI
H. In-vivo fertillisation
G. IUI
H. In-vivo fu"kspu
(1) I – G, II – B, III – F, IV – H, V – A, VI – D (2) I – F, II – B, III – A, IV – H, V – A, VI – G (3) I – F, II – B, III – E, IV – H, V – A, VI – D (4) I – G, II – B, III – F, IV – H, V – C, VI – E CAREER POINT, CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-5151200
gSA
(1) I – G, II – B, III – F, IV – H, V – A, VI – D (2) I – F, II – B, III – A, IV – H, V – A, VI – G (3) I – F, II – B, III – E, IV – H, V – A, VI – D (4) I – G, II – B, III – F, IV – H, V – C, VI – E 38
Q.175 During the last week of the luteal phase of the
Q.175 jt pØ dh Y;wfV;y voLFkk ds vfUre lIrkg ds ckn
menstrual cycle the following events occur. I.
fuEu ?kVuk;sa gksrh gS
A rapid drop in progesterone level takes place
I.
çkstsLVªksu Lrj esa rhoz :dko gksrk gS
II. Menstruation begins II. jt 'kq: gksrk gS
III. Lack of LH leads to the degeneration of the
III. LH dh deh ls dkiZl Y;wfV;e vi?kVu gksrk gS
corpus lutem IV. The endometrium is no longer maintained
IV. ,.MkesfVª;e vc VwVus yxrh gS
The correct order in which these occur is
fuEu esa ls lgh Øe gS
(1) I, III, IV, II
(1) I, III, IV, II
(2) III, I , IV, II
(2) III, I , IV, II
(3) I, III, II, IV
(3) I, III, II, IV
(4) III, I, II, IV
(4) III, I, II, IV Q.176 ân; ds vkadqpu (systole) ds nkSjku
Q.176 During systole of heart
(1) Only atria contract
(1) dsoy vkfyUn ladqfpr gksrk gS
(2) Only ventricles contract
(2) dsoy fuy; ladqfpr gksrk gS
(3) Auricles and ventricles contract separately (3) vkfyUn o fuy; i`Fkd :Ik ls ladqfpr gksrs gSA
(4) Auricles and venctricles contract simultane-
(4) vkfyUn o fuy; lkFk&lkFk ladqfpr gksrs gSA
ously
Q.177 In aquatic animals the, the osmotic concentration
Q.177 tyh; tUrqvksa esa] buds 'kjhj rjy dh lkUnzrk budh
of their body fluid change with that of the
isfjos'kh ty ijklj.kh; lkUnzrk ds lkFk cnyrh gSA
ambient water osmotic concentration. Such
bl izdkj ds tUrq gksrs gS
aquatic animals are osmo (1) Regulators
(2) Conformers
(3) Ectotherms
(4) Endotherms
Q.178 Identify the statement which is not correct
(1) fu;ked
(2) ijklj.k LFkk;h
(3) cfgZrkih
(4) vr%rkih
Q.178 dFku dh igpku dhft, tks fd lgh ugha gS
(A) Pectoral girdle is made up of 4 bones
(A) va'kes[kyk] 4 vfLFk;ksa ls fufeZr gksrh gSA
(B) Pelvic girdle is made up of 1 bone
(B) Jks.khes[kyk 1 vfLFk ls fufeZr gksrh gSA
th
th
(C) 11 & 12 pairs of ribs are floating ribs (D) Bone and cartilage are mesodermal origin
(C) 11th rFkk 12th tksM+h ilfy;k¡ ¶yksfVax ilfy;k (floating ribs) gksrh gSA
(1) A, C
(2) C
(D) vfLFk ,oa mikfLFk fetksMeZy mRifRr dh gksrh gSA
(3) B
(4) A, D
(1) A, C
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A, D
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39
Q.179 Implantation or uterine attachment of the
Q.179 vkjksi.k ;k dksjdiwVh dk xHkkZ'k; ls tqM+uk dc gksrk
blastocyst presumably occurs between nd
gS
th
(1) 2 and 5 days after ovulation st
rd
th
th
(1) v.MksRlxZ ds mijkUr nwljs rFkk ik¡posa fnu ds e/;
(2) 1 and 3 days after ovulation
(2) v.MksRlxZ ds mijkUr rhljs rFkk ik¡posa fnu ds e/;
(3) 7 and 9 days after ovulation
(3) v.MksRlxZ ds mijkUr lkrosa rFkk uosa fnu ds e/;
(4) 9th and 11th days after ovulation
Q.180 Sequence of hormones during menstrual cycle is
(4) v.MksRlxZ ds mijkUr uosa rFkk X;kgjosa fnu ds e/; Q.180 ekfld pØ ds nkSjku gkWeksUl dk Øe gksrk gS
(1) Oestrogen, progesterone and FSH (2) Progesterone, oestrogen and FSH
(1) ,LVªkstu, izkstsLVsjkWu ,oa FSH (2) izkstsLVsjkWu] ,LVªkstu ,oa FSH
(3) FSH, oestrogen and progesterone (4) FSH, progesterone and oestrogen
(3) FSH, ,LVªkstu ,oa izkstsLVsjkWu (4) FSH, izkstsLVsjkWu ,oa ,LVªkstu
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40
Space for Rough Work
HkkSfrd foKku : Full syllabus
jlk;u foKku : Full syllabus
tho foKku
:
Full syllabus
Duration : 3 Hrs.
Max. Marks : 720
ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k %
1. bl iz'u i=k esa dqy 180 iz'u gSaA lHkh iz'u gy djus vfuok;Z gSaA 2. blesa _.kkRed vadu gSA 3. bl iz'u i=k ds doj ist ij fn;s x;s LFkku esa viuk uke rFkk jksy uEcj fyf[k;sA
SEAL
4. bl iz'u i=k esa gh jQ odZ ds fy, [kkyh LFkku fn;k x;k gSA jQ odZ ds fy, dksbZ vfrfjDr 'khV ugha nh tk,sxhA 5. mÙkj O.M.R.(Optical Marks Recognisation) 'khV esa vafdr djus gSaA ;g vyx ls nh xbZ gSA 6. iz'u i=k dh lhy rc rd u [kksysa tc rd ,slk djus ds fy, ifjoh{kd }kjk dgk u tk,sA 7. [kkyh dkx+t] fDyi cksMZ] ykWx lkj.kh] LykbM :y] dsYdqysVj] lsY;qyj Qksu] istj ;k fdlh Hkh izdkj dk vU; bysDVªkWfud midj.k fdlh Hkh :i esa ijh{kk gkWy ds vUnj ys tk;s tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
vadu i)fr : 1. bl iz'u iz=k esa] ,d-fodYih;] mi-fodYih;] LrEHk feyku izdkj ds ,oa fp=k ij vk/kkfjr iz'u gSA 2. izR;sd iz'u dsa pkj fodYi esa lsa] dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, ml iz'u ds fy, fu/kkZfjr vadksa esa ls ,d vad dkV fy, tk,saxsA 3.
HkkSfrd foKku esa :
Q.1
- 45 izR;sd ds fy,
4 vad,
jlk;u foKku esa :
Q. 46
- 90
izR;sd ds fy,
4 vad,
Q. 91 - 180
izR;sd ds fy,
4 vad,
tho foKku esa
:
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